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QUESTION 1 The structure of the central nervous system contains the (A) (B) (C) (D) brain and spinal cord only. somatic nervous system and brain only. autonomic and somatic nervous systems only. spinal cord and autonomic nervous system only.
QUESTION 2 Which of the following is an inhibitory neurotransmitter located in the brain? (A) serotonin (B) dopamine (C) glutamate (D) gamma-aminobutyric acid
QUESTION 3 Explicit attitudes are (A) aperson’s conscious views towards people objects or concepts. (B) learned ideas we hold about ourselves others objects and experiences. (C) positive and negative evaluations that are not accessible to our conscious awareness. (D) oversimplified images of people who belong to a particular group causing them to appear more similar than they are.
QUESTION 4 = ° E = oO S) = oO 3) concentration 7 outside of cell inside of cell («) high concentration high concentration concentration low outside of cell Which process of neurotransmission is represented by this image? (A) action potential (B) graded potential (C) resting potential (D) event-related potential
QUESTION 5 An investigation by Minard (1952) found that below ground 80% of white miners were friendly towards black miners whereas above ground this dropped to 20%. The behaviour of the miners above ground demonstrates (A) cognitive dissonance. (B) discrimination. (C) stereotyping. (D) prejudice.
QUESTION 6 Experiments by Tajfel (1970) demonstrated that dividing participants into arbitrary groups produces 1n-group favouritism — the tendency to respond more positively say with rewards to the people from in-groups (‘us’) than people from out-groups (‘them’). Which stage of social identity theory do these experiments demonstrate? (A) social categorisation (B) social identification (C) social comparison (D) social evaluation
QUESTION 7 The cerebellum plays a critical role in (A) comprehending language and forming meaningful sentences. (B) controlling muscles responsible for the production of articulate speech. (C) coordinating muscle movements and maintaining posture and balance. (D) regulating emotional balance resulting in disconnected brain activities.
QUESTION 8 In the 1920 Little Albert experiment Watson taught the child to fear rats by associating them with an unpleasant noise. Little Albert’s response of crying and trembling when the rat was presented is (A) areflexive response. (B) amodelled response. (C) aconditioned response. (D) an unconditioned response.
QUESTION 9 An aversive or unpleasant stimulus that strengthens behaviour by its removal is known as (A) positive punishment. (B) negative punishment. (C) positive reinforcement. (D) negative reinforcement.
QUESTION 10 Researchers showed toddlers their mothers being exposed to a rubber snake. In the control group the mothers had a neutral expression while 1n the experimental group the mother’s reaction was negative (panic and avoidance). The results indicated that when presented with the rubber snake toddlers tended to react in a similar way to their mothers. The investigation demonstrates modelling because the toddlers (A) tend to generalise their behaviour to all snakes. (B) observed the consequences of their mother’s behaviour. (C) learned to reproduce the behaviours exhibited by the mothers. (D) associated the snake with an emotional reaction creating a learned fear response.
QUESTION 12 Primary socialisation occurs (A) mainly outside the home environment. (B) mainly during adolescence and into adulthood. (C) when achild learns appropriate attitudes values and actions from family members. (D) when achild learns appropriate behaviours as a member of a small group within a larger society.
QUESTION 13 In the experiment by Haney Banks and Zimbardo (1973) the guards had greater power than the prisoners. The difference in power was because of the (A) authority of the experimenter. (B) personalities of the participants. (C) social roles of the participants and the social environment of the prison. (D) ability of the prisoners to withdraw from the experiment at their leisure.
QUESTION 14 Aronson and Worchel (1966) led participants to believe that the person with whom they had interacted either liked them or disliked them. The results indicated that ‘liking’ had a significant effect on the participants’ feelings for the other person. Which origin of attraction do the results of this investigation support? (A) proximity (B) similarity (C) familiarity (D) reciprocity
QUESTION 15 Advertising can influence aggression by using techniques taken from classical conditioning whereby consumers learn (A) to identify with certain characters. (B) the consequences of aggressive behaviour. (C) to associate two previously unrelated stimuli. (D) to attend to retain and reproduce certain behaviours.
QUESTION 16 Which language processing region of the brain has been damaged if a person has difficulty speaking and putting together grammatical sentences but remains able to comprehend language? (A) Broca’s area (B) Wernicke’s area (C) Parkinson’s territory (D) Geschwind’s territory
QUESTION 17 Feinstein et al. (2010) conducted an investigation on a human patient SM who had a pre-existing brain lesion and was unable to experience fear. Researchers sought to invoke fear in SM by exposing them to live snakes and spiders and taking them on a tour of a haunted house. During each of these occasions SM did not exhibit any fear. In what part of the brain did SM most likely have a lesion? (A) cerebrum (B) amygdala (C) cerebellum (D) primary motor cortex
QUESTION 18 Acetylcholine is involved in which of the following psychological functions? (A) pleasure and reward (B) learning and memory (C) sleep and emotional arousal (D) articulation and comprehension of speech
QUESTION 19 Which of the following statements best describes semantic memory? (A) memory of learnt skills and actions (B) memory of general world knowledge or facts (C) memory drawn from objects and places experienced (D) memory drawn from events and the people associated
QUESTION 20 Tulving and Pearlstone (1966) asked participants to learn lists of words belonging to different categories e.g. names of animals clothing and sports. When asked to recount the words one group of participants was given category names and the other group was not. Participants in the group not given category names used recall as it involves (A) retrieving stored information using few or no cues for assistance. (B) identifying previously studied information from a list or group of alternatives. (C) grouping separate items in order to increase the capacity of short-term memory. (D) learning information that has been previously learnt and stored in long-term memory.
QUESTION 22 The Ames room illusion demonstrates the fallibility of visual perception as it causes the observer to (A) misapply shape constancy but maintain size constancy. (B) misapply size constancy but maintain shape constancy. (C) muisapply size constancy but maintain linear perspective cues. (D) misapply shape constancy but maintain linear perspective cues.
QUESTION 23 The components of the tri-component model are known as affective behavioural and (A) active. (B) physical. (C) cognitive. (D) emotional.
QUESTION 24 Blaming a person or group for the actions of others or for conditions not of their making is known as (A) scapegoating. (B) group prejudice. (C) direct experience. (D) personal discrimination.
QUESTION 25 Conversational distance refers to how close people stand to each other when talking and is related to the idea of intimate space. Conversational distance is one measure that characterises differences in (A) accommodation. (B) assimilation. (C) pluralism. (D) culture.
QUESTION 26 Explicit racism is characterised by (A) the unequal treatment of some people who should have the same rights as others. (B) any speech or behaviour that demonstrates a conscious awareness of prejudicial attitudes. (C) schemas and qualities ascribed to a group of people based on qualities such as ethnicity or gender. (D) unconscious biases expectations or tendencies that exist within an individual regardless of ill will or any self-aware prejudices.
QUESTION 27 Select the row in the table that best describes the differences between pluralism and multiculturalism. Many subcultures within a dominant culture | Lack of a dominant culture Lack of a dominant culture Several dominant cultures
QUESTION 28 Which of the following best describes culture shock? (A) (B) (C) (D) absorption into the dominant culture and abandonment of the traditional culture shared goals that groups or individuals cannot achieve alone or without the other person or group feelings of disorientation and anxiety that occur as people from one culture encounter and adapt to another culture shared rules that govern the behaviour of a group of people and enable members of that group to co-exist and survive
QUESTION 29 An investigation by Wixted (1991) allowed participants to rehearse words up until the moment of recall. The strategy most likely used by participants in the investigation to improve their memory was (A) maintenance rehearsal. (B) elaborative rehearsal. (C) method of loci. (D) SQ4R method.
QUESTION 30 The investigation by Deregowski (1972) found that one group of participants preferred split-type drawings similar to image A rather than perspective drawings similar to image B. This stimulus has not been published for copyright reasons. View figure in Deregowski J.B. (1972) Pictorial perception and culture. Scientific American 227 82-88 DOI: 10.1038/scientificamerican1172-82 This preference was most likely due to (A) culture. (B) depth cues. (C) motivation. (D) size constancy.
QUESTION 32 (1 mark) Describe how influence can lead to a sense of community according to McMillan and Chavis (1986).
QUESTION 33 (2 marks) Identify two parts of the brain that are responsible for voluntary movements.
QUESTION 34 (2 marks) Describe how intergroup contact can reduce prejudice using an example.
QUESTION 35 (2 marks) Salthouse (1994) used a series of five-by-five matrices of 25 letters similar to the image shown. Each matrix was displayed for three seconds. This stimulus has not been published for copyright reasons. View in Figure 1A) Illustration of stimulus displays at https://www.researchgate.net/profile/Timothy Salthouse/ publication/232504870 The Aging of Working _ Memory/links/0c9605374d12c0ddb9000000/The-Aging- of-Working-Memory.pdf In the verbal version of the task participants were instructed to remember the identities of the letters in grey-shaded squares 1n any order. In the spatial task participants were instructed to remember the positions of the grey-shaded squares regardless of the letters in those positions. Identify one component of the model of working memory that is relevant to the investigation. Support your response with an example from the investigation.
QUESTION 36 (2 marks) Describe encoding failure with reference to an example from everyday life.
QUESTION 38 (3 marks) Contrast self-serving and confirmation biases. Give an example of each.
QUESTION 39 (3 marks) Compare social learning and biology-based theories of gender role formation.
QUESTION 40 (4 marks) Discuss the general aggression model (GAM) by providing an argument for and against the model. Provide an example for each argument.
QUESTION 41 (3 marks) Discuss the impact of interference in neurotransmitter function on the symptoms of Parkinson’s disease or Alzheimer’s disease.
QUESTION 1 (13 marks) This question refers to the investigation by Pavlov (1897/1902). a) b) d) e) State the unconditioned response (UCR) neutral stimulus (NS) and the conditioned stimulus (CS) in the investigation. UCR: NS: CS: Distinguish between stimulus generalisation and stimulus discrimination. Support your response with one example of each relevant to the investigation. Describe spontaneous recovery. Support your response with an example relevant to the investigation. Compare Pavlov’s investigation to that conducted by Skinner (1948). Assuming that classical and operant conditioning result in the formation of long-term memories identify the associations that are formed in these types of conditioning. [3 marks] [3 marks] [2 marks] [3 marks] [2 marks]
QUESTION 2 (7 marks) This question refers to the experiments by Cialdini et al. (2006). a) b) c) Identify a factor that may have reduced the antisocial behaviour of the participants in the experiments. Give a reason for your judgment. [2 marks] Describe social responsibility as a factor that may have increased the prosocial behaviour of participants in the experiments. [2 marks] In a follow-up study signs were placed at the entry to a beach where dune regeneration was required after a cyclone. The words on the signs were ‘Please do not walk on the dunes.’ and ‘The vast majority of beach goers have avoided the dunes allowing their regeneration.’ Predict which sign will be more effective. Give reasons for your response based on the findings of the original experiments. [3 marks]
QUESTION 3 (13 marks) This question refers to the study by Darley and Latane (1968). a) b) c) d) Describe how empathy as a personal characteristic may have increased the prosocial behaviour of the participants in the study. Describe situational and dispositional attributions and then identify how each could be used to explain the behaviour of participants in the study. Describe the three stages of the model of bystander intervention using examples from the study for each stage. Participants who failed to report the emergency showed signs of extreme concern when the experimenter entered the room to terminate the study. Many showed physical signs of nervousness and seemed more emotionally charged than those who did report the emergency. Infer why this group of participants may have reacted this way. [2 marks] [4 marks] [6 marks] [1 mark]
QUESTION 4 (11 marks) This question refers to the experiment by Humphrey and Jolicoeur (1993). The researchers examined whether the identification of objects is influenced by the type of background on which they are seen. Participants were presented with 32 common objects on one of two backgrounds one with depth cues and one without such cues. An example can be seen in the figure where image A has a background without depth and image B has a depth background. The results found that objects were identified more rapidly when presented on the background with depth cues. Researchers concluded that depth backgrounds provided monocular depth cues that assisted in the encoding and recognition of the objects. This stimulus has not been published for copyright reasons. View Figure 2 ‘Depth background and the background without depth’ at https://www.semanticscholar.org/paper/An-Examination-of-the-Effects-of- Axis-Monocular-and-Humphrey-Jolicoeur/361cSbb0cf4f131622fc33f2ddbd910 38742 \ cf. a) State which lobe of the brain is primarily responsible for processing the visual images. [1 mark] b) Explain the process of visual perception that enables participants to view and then interpret the images presented from the first stage of the eyes to the final identification of the object. [6 marks] c) Explain a depth cue and an aspect of visual constancy as psychological influences on visual perception evident in the experiment. [4 marks]
QUESTION 5 (6 marks) This question refers to the investigation by Grant et al. (1998). After completing a reading task 1n a silent classroom participants were divided into two condition groups. One group completed a multiple-choice test about the reading task in silence and the other with a background noise. The raw results of both test conditions are presented in this table. d) Determine the mode for the noisy test condition. [1 mark] Calculate the interquartile range IQR = Q;— Q ) for the silent test condition. Show your working. [2 marks] The interquartile range (IQR) for the noisy test condition was 2. Contrast the noisy and silent test conditions referencing the interquartile ranges. [1 mark] To determine whether there was a statistically significant difference between the two conditions researchers conducted a two-sample t-test (unpaired). The result was p > .05. Draw a conclusion about what the results of the statistical test show. [2 marks]
QUESTION 2 Researchers analysed the results using a Pearson correlation coefficient. The result was r = 0.98. It could be inferred that this demonstrates a (A) weak positive correlation. (B) weak negative correlation. (C) strong positive correlation. (D) strong negative correlation.
QUESTION 3 A conclusion that could be drawn from the analysed result is (A) the number of elderly primes had no effect on walking time. (B) the number of elderly primes had little effect on walking time. (C) as the number of elderly primes increased walking time increased. (D) as the number of elderly primes increased walking time decreased.
QUESTION 4 Personal prejudice is (A) blaming a group for the actions of others. (B) attitudes held to conform with group views. (C) negative thoughts stereotypes and actions towards others based on race. (D) an opinion of another person based on their real or perceived group membership.
QUESTION 5 According to Duck’s stages of dissolution in the dyadic phase individuals (A) (B) (C) (D) retrospectively make sense of the relationship’s history by developing an account that casts the individual in a favourable light. reveal their concerns regarding the relationship to their partner and attempt to redefine the relationship. internalise reflections on the state of the relationship generally and the partner specifically. recognise that relationships are embedded in social networks.
QUESTION 6 Self-serving bias is the tendency for people to (A) (B) (C) (D) attribute their own behavioural successes to personal factors that are in their control. infer that a person’s behaviour is due to the situation or environment they are in. infer that self-serving factors are the cause of an event or behaviour. search for approval for what they believe.
QUESTION 7 For classical conditioning extinction is described as (A) the re-emergence of a previously learnt conditioned response. (B) the process in which an organism learns to respond to a restricted range of stimuli. (C) the decrease in frequency of a response when the unconditioned stimulus is no longer presented. (D) the process in which an organism learns to respond to stimuli that resemble the conditioned stimulus.
QUESTION 9 A limitation of the working model of memory is that it (A) (B) (C) (D) provides no role for rehearsal. emphasises structure rather than processing. does not take into account cross-cultural differences in memory span. provides a poor account of developmental differences in memory span.
QUESTION 10 For operant conditioning stimulus discrimination is described as the (A) spontaneous re-emergence of an operant that had been extinguished. (B) tendency to respond to stimuli similar to the stimuli that precede reinforcement. (C) process in which the connection between an operant and a reinforcer or punishment is broken. (D) ability to differentiate between stimuli and respond only to the original stimulus not similar stimuli.
QUESTION 11 Superordinate goals reduce prejudice through (A) dependence on one another to meet each person’s goals. (B) shared goals that a group or individuals cannot achieve alone or without other groups or individuals. (C) prolonged and involved cooperative activity in order to meet goals rather than a casual and purposeless contact. (D) social interaction occurring at the same level in order to meet goals without obvious differences in power or status.
QUESTION 12 Robinson and O’Leary-Kelly (2017) investigated antisocial behaviour at work. They found a positive relationship between the level of antisocial behaviour exhibited by an individual and that exhibited by their co-workers. What factor most likely affected the antisocial behaviour in this investigation? (A) social influence (B) audience inhibition (C) cost-benefit analysis (D) diffusion of responsibility
QUESTION 13 Implicit racism is characterised as negative (A) (B) (C) (D) treatment of people based on race. stereotypes about members of another racial group. overt actions towards members of a particular cultural group. unconscious actions towards members of another racial group.
QUESTION 14 This image represents (A) the Ponzo illusion. (B) an impossible figure. (C) an ambiguous figure. (D) the Miller-Lyer illusion.
QUESTION 15 Recognition involves (A) identifying previously studied information. (B) re-learning previously studied information. (C) manipulating information that has been previously learnt and tested. (D) recalling information from memory with some cues or hints for assistance.
QUESTION 16 Kohlenberg and Tsai (1994) helped people recognise subtle triggers for maladaptive responses in relationships. Behavioural analysis of one couple suggested that one partner was responding to a particular tone in the other partner’s voice regardless of their words. This is an example of (A) positive punishment. (B) negative reinforcement. (C) stimulus generalisation. (D) stimulus discrimination.
QUESTION 17 These results are from an investigation in which smoke was introduced into a room while different groupings of participants completed a questionnaire. Condition Reporting smoke (%) Alone 75 Two passive confederates 10 Three naive subjects 38 Darley and Latane’s (1968) model of bystander intervention would attribute these results to (A) a loss of social identity and inhibition. (B) the tendency for an individual to reduce their effort in a group. (C) the presence of others reducing the likelihood of prosocial behaviour. (D) individuals changing their behaviour as a result of real or implied pressure from others.
QUESTION 18 Associating people’s behaviour with their internal characteristics is (A) situational bias. (B) correspondence bias. (C) _ situational attribution. (D) dispositional attribution.
QUESTION 20 Social learning theories of gender development assume that (A) cognitive processes play a key role in the development of gender identity and gender roles. (B) gender roles are attained through the observation of same-sex models direct tuition and modelling. (C) gender schemas develop through role identity and children’s ability to label themselves as boys or girls. (D) humans are born with innate predispositions to act and feel feminine or masculine due to the presence or absence of prenatal androgens.
QUESTION 21 According to McMillan and Chavis (1986) the feeling that members’ desires will be met by the resources received through their involvement in a group is described as (A) influence. (B) membership. (C) shared emotional connection. (D) integration and fulfilment of needs.
QUESTION 22 Competence can lead to prosocial behaviour as a person (A) believes they have the skills and abilities required to solve the problem. (B) has the capacity to understand another person’s experiences both cognitively and emotionally. (C) has relatively extended emotional states that do not shift attention or disrupt ongoing activities. (D) behaves in a way that helps another person with no apparent gain or with potential cost to oneself.
QUESTION 23 Which regions of the brain contribute to coordination precision and accurate timing of voluntary muscle movement? (A) cerebrum and forebrain (B) basal ganglia and cerebellum (C) amygdala and prefrontal cortex (D) frontal lobe and Geschwind’s territory
QUESTION 24 What is the primary excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain responsible for the fast transmission of neural messages? (A) serotonin (B) dopamine (C) glutamate (D) gamma-aminobutyric acid
QUESTION 25 A symptom of Alzheimer’s disease is (A) bradykinesia. (B) rigid muscles. (C) disorientation. (D) impaired posture.
QUESTION 26 (2 marks) Identify the role of the spinal cord in the human nervous system and describe a spinal reflex.
QUESTION 27 (1 mark) Distinguish between modelling and vicarious conditioning.
QUESTION 28 (2 marks) Toch and Schulte (1961) conducted a study in which participants viewed one set of pictures that could be perceived as violent and another set that could be perceived as neutral. The methodology involved two groups of participants viewing 18 pictures in total. They were then asked to recall as many pictures as possible. Some of the results are shown. Stimulus redacted. Identify a psychological influence on visual perception and explain how it may have led to these results.
QUESTION 29 (1 mark) Describe why assimilation is a psychological challenge of immigration.
QUESTION 30 (2 marks) Identify two areas of the brain responsible for emotion. lL: Zz
QUESTION 31 (2 marks) Serafine Crowder and Repp (1984) investigated how memories are stored by employing an incidental learning task. Participants were asked to listen to several songs and decide if they were familiar with each song or not. Half of the participants (Group 1) heard familiar folk songs. The other half (Group 2) heard the same familiar songs with new unfamiliar lyrics. Results showed that participants in Group | had a much higher chance of identifying the songs as being familiar. This suggests that memories are stored as associations e.g. lyrics and tune. Describe forgetting due to interference effects with reference to the experiment.
QUESTION 32 (1 mark) State the biological influence that causes colour blindness.
QUESTION 33 (3 marks) Explain transduction as a process of early visual perception.
QUESTION 34 (2 marks) The image shows an example of classical conditioning. q ae a Stage 1 Stage 2 Stage 3 Dog sees food and salivates. Dog sees food and hears bell Dog hears bell and salivates. and salivates. q State what is meant by the conditioned stimulus (CS) and identify the CS in the image.
QUESTION 35 (4 marks) In an experiment by Sperling (1960) participants were shown a chart similar to the one below for 50 milliseconds and asked to recall as many letters as possible. The results showed that participants were able to recall between five and six letters. Participants reported that they were aware of more but were unable to state them before they were forgotten. Stimulus redacted. See References: Sperling G ‘The information available in brief visual presentations’ Describe the duration and capacity of visual sensory memory. Support your response with reference to the results of the experiment.
QUESTION 36 (2 marks) Identify one strength and one limitation of social identity theory.
QUESTION 37 (3 marks) Compare the functions of dopamine and serotonin.
QUESTION 38 (4 marks) Provide an argument for and against using elaborative rehearsal as a strategy to improve memory. Support your response with an example for each argument.
QUESTION 1 (7 marks) This question refers to the investigations by Skinner (1948). a) Distinguish between positive and negative reinforcement. Provide an example of a positively reinforced response in Skinner’s experiment. [2 marks] b) Describe extinction and spontaneous recovery using an example of each from Skinner’s experiment. [4 marks] c) Contrast the experiment by Skinner (1948) with that conducted by Pavlov (1897 1902). [1 mark]
QUESTION 2 (11 marks) This question refers to the experiment conducted by Asch (1951). a) Describe explicit and implicit attitudes with reference to the experiment. [4 marks] b) Describe the type of group social influence displayed. Provide an example from the experiment to support your response. [2 marks] In another study researchers replicated Asch’s methodology. However half the participants were instructed to state their responses publicly and the other half privately. c) Predict the behaviour of participants in the public group. Give a reason for your response. —_/2 marks] d) Infer whether the participants in Asch’s experiment would have experienced cognitive dissonance. Give a reason for your response. [2 marks] e) Identify the significance of Asch’s experiment for social psychological research. [1 mark]
QUESTION 3 (8 marks) This question refers to the cross-cultural study conducted by Buss et al. (1990). a) b) C) d) Education intelligence Pleasing disposition One of the conclusions from the research was that ‘more than females males prefer mates who are physically attractive. More than males females prefer mates who show ambition-industriousness and other signs of earning potential.’ Describe one biological theory of attraction and give two examples from the study that support this theory. [3 marks] Describe ‘culture’ and provide an example from the study. [2 marks] Identify how similarity as an origin of attraction is relevant to the study. [1 mark] The graph displays the locations of each sample in the first two studied dimensions (‘modern’ versus ‘traditional’ and ‘education intelligence and refinement’ versus ‘pleasing disposition’). Identify one piece of evidence that is consistent and one piece of evidence that is inconsistent with similarity as an origin of attraction. [2 marks] India e and refinement e Australia New Zealand e e Bulgaria e Israel Finland e e e Norway Sweden e Ireland e Japan e Estonia 2 Traditional
QUESTION 4 (10 marks) This question refers to the experiment by Catani Jones and Ffytche (2005). Researchers investigated how Broca’s area Wernicke’s area and Geschwind’s territory are connected. They found evidence for three distinct pathways: ¢ a direct pathway connecting Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas * an indirect pathway connecting Wernicke’s area and Geschwind’s territory * an indirect pathway connecting Broca’s area and Geschwind’s territory. The research indicated that the direct pathway is responsible for phonologically-based language functions such as automatic word repetition and the indirect pathways relate to semantically-based language functions such as auditory comprehension and vocalisation of semantic content. a) State the part of the human nervous system in which the brain is located. [1 mark] b) Identify the lobe of the cerebral cortex in which the language centres in the experiment are located. [3 marks] Broca’s: Wernicke’s: Geschwind’s: c) Identify the type of language processing that occurs in Broca’s area Wernicke’s area and Geschwind’s territory. Support your response with evidence from the experiment. [6 marks]
QUESTION 5 (4 marks) This question refers to the experiment by Grant et al. (1998). sientswaviee | 617] 8[ 8[ 8] [7] 7] 76 Soiysuayeer | | 6/9 fw 4| si oiafols a) Determine the median for the silent study test. [1 mark] b) Draw qualitative and quantitative conclusions from the graph. [3 marks] Confidence intervals g 7 } Z = 6 = 5 > e 4 oO ay S 3 B a) 5 Ay 0 Silent study test Noisy study test
QUESTION 2 Which of the following conditions resulted in the best student performance? Study condition Test condition Mean score Standard Mean score Standard deviation deviation test (/10) a test (/15) (A) silent short answer test with the silent study condition (B) silent short answer test with the noisy study condition (C) silent multiple choice test with the silent study condition (D) silent multiple choice test with the noisy study condition
QUESTION 5 Adolescents often see social media personalities as role models. In this context social media personalities are (A) attending to and reproducing the behaviours of adolescents. (B) vicariously reinforced by the behaviours of adolescents. (C) agents of secondary socialisation. (D) displaying primary socialisation.
QUESTION 6 In an investigation students in shared accommodation were given questionnaires at two different times during the semester. The questionnaires asked about early and later attraction to other students. The results showed that in the first few weeks of the semester students reported being most attracted to people they shared accommodation with. However as the semester progressed students reported being most attracted to people who held compatible attitudes. Identify the type of attraction experienced by students later in the semester. (A) similarity (B) proximity (C) familiarity (D) reciprocity
QUESTION 8 Researchers investigating unfriending behaviours on a social media platform found that most people communicated their concerns in an effort to fix issues before ending the relationship. Which stage of Duck’s stages of dissolution does this represent? (A) social (B) dyadic (C) intrapsychic (D) grave-dressing
QUESTION 9 McMillan and Chavis (1986) found that four factors combine to create a sense of community. Along with membership these factors are (A) influence investment and shared emotional connection. (B) shared emotional connection spiritual bonds and investment. (C) integration and fulfilment of needs influence and shared emotional connection. (D) integration and fulfilment of needs spiritual bonds and shared emotional connection.
QUESTION 10 Consider two theories. Theory 1 proposes that children act as mere observers in an environment and as a result their role in their own gender development is passive. Theory 2 proposes that children form mental categories for gender and then acquire gender-related knowledge around these categories. Based on this information which type of gender role formation theory do these theories represent? Gender schema-based Cognitive developmental
QUESTION 11 Assimilation occurs when (A) there is no dominant culture and diverse religious ethnic or cultural groups co-exist within a society. (B) aminority group’s cultural markers such as language tradition and food are maintained. (C) there is a dominant culture and minority groups participate fully in the dominant society. (D) aminority group gradually loses all of the markers that set it apart as a separate culture.
QUESTION 12 Discrimination is (A) a preconceived opinion that is not based on reason or experience. (B) an unconscious unfavourable belief about a group of people. (C) anegative overt thought about members of a cultural group. (D) the behavioural manifestation of a prejudicial attitude.
QUESTION 13 Which type of optical illusion involves a two-dimensional figure that people interpret as three-dimensional? (A) Ponzo illusion (B) Impossible figure (C) Ambiguous figure (D) Miller-Lyer illusion
QUESTION 14 Which image best represents association after conditioning? (A) (B) b a“ Dog hears bell. Dog sees food and salivates. jean Dog sees food and hears bell and salivates. Dog hears bell and salivates. (C)
QUESTION 15 An implication of the social psychological research conducted by Milgram (1963) is that (A) social pressure can increase obedience. (B) obedience increases if a command has authority. (C) obedience decreases if commands are given in quick succession. (D) the proximity of an authority figure does not influence obedience.
QUESTION 16 Ross (1971) examined the reactions of 36 undergraduates who were presented with emergency situations in the presence of two non-responding adult confederates or two non-responding child confederates. It was found that participants responded more quickly in the presence of children. Researchers were investigating (A) cost-benefit analysis and empathy. (B) diffusion of responsibility and competence. (C) bystander intervention and social responsibility. (D) the reciprocity principle and audience inhibition.
QUESTION 17 In an operant conditioning experiment pigeons were positively reinforced when they pecked a key with its yellow/green light on. The pigeons were not reinforced when they pecked the key with its red light on. The results were that the pigeons only pecked the key when the yellow/green light was on. This is an example of stimulus (A) pairing. (B) recovery. (C) generalisation. (D) discrimination.
QUESTION 18 According to operant conditioning extinction occurs (A) if reinforcement is discontinued. (B) if there is a change in reinforcement. (C) over time even if reinforcement is continued. (D) for an equal period of time to that spent learning the behaviour.
QUESTION 19 In an experiment participants were asked to select statements expressing how much they favoured one category of people over another. An example was ‘I strongly prefer young people to old people’. This experiment was investigating (A) discrimination and scapegoating. (B) stereotypes and direct experience. (C) explicit attitudes and group prejudice. (D) implicit attitudes and the prejudiced personality.
QUESTION 20 A comparison of the roles of classical conditioning (CC) operant conditioning (OC) and social learning theory (SLT) in the Designae and maintenance of phobias suggests that OC a SLT associate a stimulus and a response CC rewards avoidance CC and SLT associate a stimulus and a response OC rewards avoidance OC associates a stimulus and a response CC and SLT punish avoidance CC associates a stimulus and a response OC and SLT punish avoidance
QUESTION 21 (2 marks) Identify the two main structures of the central nervous system. I. 2.
QUESTION 22 (3 marks) Explain how advertising video games and social media can influence aggression.
QUESTION 23 (2 marks) Identify two roles of Geschwind’s territory in language processing.
QUESTION 24 (1 mark) Following a car accident a person is uncoordinated and walking unsteadily. Identify the area of the brain that is most likely damaged.
QUESTION 25 (1 mark) Contrast self-serving bias and confirmation bias.
QUESTION 26 (2 marks) a) Identify the area labelled X. [1 mark] b) Describe a role of the area identified in Question 26a). [1 mark]
QUESTION 27 (3 marks) Describe prejudice and provide two examples.
QUESTION 28 (2 marks) Describe altruism and provide an example of this behaviour.
QUESTION 29 (2 marks) Describe retrieval failure and identify a strategy that could prevent it.
QUESTION 30 (2 marks) Identify one strength and one limitation of social identity theory.
QUESTION 31 (5 marks) Miller (1984) asked groups of middle-class adults and children aged 8 11 and 15 from two different cultures to narrate antisocial behaviours and explain what prompts them. The proportion of dispositional attributions for each culture are shown. Describe dispositional attributions and identify two observed differences between cultures | and 2. Use data to explain your reasoning.
QUESTION 32 (5 marks) a) Identify the capacity and duration of short-term memory without the use of strategies. [2 marks] Capacity: Duration: b) Describe chunking and discuss one argument for using chunking and one argument against using it to increase the capacity of short-term memory. [3 marks]
QUESTION 33 (5 marks) Draw and label a diagram to demonstrate neurotransmission.
QUESTION 1 (8 marks) This question refers to the investigation by Barlow et al. (2012). Researchers surveyed 441 participants from one dominant racial group about the amount of positive and negative contact they had with a minority racial group and the dominant racial group’s prejudicial attitudes towards them. The results included that: * negative contact generally occurred less frequently than positive contact * participants who had more negative contact with the minority racial group reported more prejudicial attitudes and were more likely to avoid culture-based topics of conversation and face-to-face contact * negative contact was a strong predictor of increased prejudice * positive contact was a weaker predictor of reduced prejudice. a) Explain how prejudice can lead to discrimination and provide two examples from the investigation. [3 marks] b) Identify the type of racism experienced in the investigation and describe two ways to reduce this form of prejudice. [3 marks] c) Infer why positive contact may not have reduced the prejudicial attitudes of some members of the dominant racial group. [2 marks]
QUESTION 2 (9 marks) This question refers to the investigation by Watson and Rayner (1920). a) Describe how fear responses can be learnt and provide an example of this process from the investigation. b) Distinguish between stimulus generalisation and stimulus discrimination. Identify which occurred in the investigation and provide an example. c) Ina follow-up study researchers showed infants a video of another infant’s reaction to the rat following fear conditioning. Predict the reaction of the infants shown the video when subsequently presented with a rat. Justify your prediction. d) Describe extinction and explain how the learnt fear response could be extinguished in a participant from the follow-up study. [2 marks] [3 marks] [2 marks] [2 marks]
QUESTION 3 (8 marks) This question refers to the investigation by Haney Banks and Zimbardo (1973). a) Describe how power operated for each group in the investigation. [4 marks] b) Describe the role of identification in group social influence and provide an example of it from the investigation. [2 marks] c) Identify another factor that may have influenced the antisocial behaviour of the participants and provide an example from the investigation. [2 marks]
QUESTION 4 (8 marks) This question refers to the investigation by Hudson (1960). a) Identify the lobes of the brain needed to perceive the visual stimuli in the investigation. b) Describe the specific visual perception function of the area of the brain identified in Question 4a). c) Explain perceptual set. Provide an example of how it influenced the participants’ visual perception and interpretation of images in the investigation. d) Explain how a relevant pictorial depth cue would assist in the interpretation of images in the ‘flying bird scene’ from the investigation. e) Explain how cultural skills can affect visual perception and provide an example from the investigation. [1 mark] [1 mark] [2 marks] [2 marks] [2 marks]
QUESTION 5 (6 marks) This question refers to a modified investigation based on the methodology of Bargh Chen and Burrows (1996). The investigation (Experiment 2) was designed to test whether there is a relationship between stereotype activations and behaviour using the time taken to climb a set of stairs. Researchers predicted that there would be no relationship between stereotype activation and behaviour (time taken). Participants were instructed to work on a scrambled sentences task as part of a language proficiency experiment. The scrambled sentences task contained 0 2 4 6 8 or 10 primes relevant to an athletic stereotype (fit strong active etc.) or a non-athletic stereotype (frail weak uncoordinated etc.). Researchers then recorded the time taken for each participant to walk up the set of stairs outside the room. The results are shown. 9.4 9.2 9.0 2 88 < oO S 8.6 EB 84 ep 8.2 < ZB 8.0 7.8 7.6 7.4 Number of primes Key A Average time taken (athletic) [Average time taken (non-athletic) Condition Spearman’s rank correlation coefficient a) Identify the level of measurement used in the investigation. [1 mark] b) Identify the two relationships in the graph. [2 marks] c) Infer whether the prediction made by researchers was correct. Justify your response using data in the table. [3 marks]
QUESTION 6 (6 marks) An investigation by Craik and Tulving (1975) presented participants with a series of words they had to answer one of three questions about. Each question was designed to elicit a type of encoding. Participants were then given a list of words that included the original series of words and were asked which words they had seen previously. The results are shown. Differences between conditions were statistically significant at P < 0.05. a) b) o) Level of processing 1.00 0.80 mo) eA = 8) 0.60 3 i= aS} & 0.40 or S a 0.20 0.00 Structural Phonetic Semantic Draw a conclusion about encoding in long-term memory. Justify your conclusion with evidence from the investigation. [2 marks] Describe the levels of processing model of memory and identify how the investigation supports this model. [2 marks] Describe encoding failure and explain how information was most likely lost through this process in the investigation. [2 marks]
QUESTION 2 Buss et al. (1990) interviewed participants from 37 cultures and found evidence of universal traits for mate selection. This supports (A) social theories of attraction. (B) cultural theories of attraction. (C) cognitive theories of attraction. (D) biological theories of attraction.
QUESTION 3 Two vertical lines of equal length are shown with shorter line segments (fins) at the ends. The fins give the illusion that one line is longer than the other. One explanation for this illusion draws on (A) Gestalt principles. (B) ambiguous figures. (C) monocular depth cues. (D) perceptual compromise.
QUESTION 4 An example of discrimination 1s (A) (B) (C) (D) holding a negative attitude towards people born in a different country. avoiding interactions with people from a different race. believing that men are better drivers than women. thinking that young people are unreliable.
QUESTION 5 Guards in the Stanford prison experiment (Haney Banks and Zimbardo 1973) changed their attitudes and behaviours to align more closely with their perception of a typical prison guard. As a group the guards had the ability to influence the behaviour of prisoners. In social psychology these are examples of (A) roles and power. (B) internalisation and prejudice. (C) compliance and socialisation. (D) obedience and discrimination.
QUESTION 6 Japanese guests removing their shoes when they enter a home is an expression of (A) culture. (B) pluralism. (C) collectivism. (D) individualism.
QUESTION 7 Secondary socialisation (A) involves a permanent change in beliefs and attitudes. (B) is essential for early physical and mental development. (C) conflicts with the norms learnt during primary socialisation. (D) does not require in-person interaction with the socialising agent.
QUESTION 8 In classical conditioning spontaneous recovery refers to (A) producing an extinguished response after re-pairing with the unconditioned stimulus. (B) aresponse being extinguished after being shown with no reinforcement. (C) aresponse to any stimulus that resembles the conditioned stimulus. (D) producing an extinguished response after a rest period.
QUESTION 9 Phelps (2005) found that damage to the limbic system reduced the ability to recognise the intensity of fearful expressions in other people. This damage most likely occurred to the (A) primary visual cortex. (B) prefrontal cortex. (C) amygdala. (D) HPA axis.
QUESTION 10 Inui et al. (2010) examined the cortical response to sound. The type of sensory memory being studied is (A) olfactory. (B) echoic. (C) haptic. (D) iconic.
QUESTION 11 When you touch a hot stove you instinctively pull your hand away. This demonstrates (A) apolysynaptic reflex. (B) amonosynaptic reflex. (C) an involuntary response from the sympathetic nervous system. (D) an involuntary response from the parasympathetic nervous system.
QUESTION 12 Cramton (2002) found that work groups in different locations formed in-groups and out-groups based on location. This increased the tendency to attribute behaviour of out-group members to their personal qualities especially when this presented them in a bad light. Which two processes in social psychology does this reflect? (A) prejudice and self-serving bias (B) discrimination and confirmation bias (C) social identification and situational attributions (D) social comparison and the fundamental attribution error
QUESTION 13 The expectation that you will help a person who has previously helped you is known as (A) altruism. (B) empathy. (C) reciprocity. (D) cost-benefit analysis.
QUESTION 14 In an experiment by Darley and Latane (1968) participants in groups of two to six people sat in individual cubicles connected by intercoms to allow for group discussion. An experimental accomplice faked a severe epileptic seizure and the percentage of participants who sought help was measured. As interpreted by the authors the results of this investigation were that increasing group size (A) reduced an individual’s feelings of responsibility and decreased the percentage of participants who sought help. (B) increased an individual’s feelings of responsibility and increased the percentage of participants who sought help. (C) had no effect on an individual’s feelings of responsibility resulting in an inconsistent pattern of participants who sought help. (D) only had an effect in groups larger than three otherwise participants’ sense of responsibility and percentage who sought help were unaffected.
QUESTION 17 In Watson and Rayner’s (1920) Little Albert experiment a loud noise was repeatedly paired with presentation of a rat. Little Albert’s crying when the rat was later shown is an example of (A) an unconditioned response. (B) an unconditioned stimulus. (C) aconditioned response. (D) aconditioned stimulus.
QUESTION 18 Kutner Wilkins and Yarrow (1952) had a group comprised of one African-American and two white participants enter different restaurants in a predominantly white suburb in the United States. All were served a meal. Weeks later experimenters called each restaurant to make a table reservation for a mixed-race group and more than half of the restaurants refused this booking. Restaurants were inconsistent in which component of the tri-component model of attitudes? (A) experience (B) behaviour (C) cognition (D) affect
QUESTION 19 Groups working together to achieve a shared objective reduces prejudice. This is known as (A) mutual interdependence. (B) equal-status contact. (C) intergroup contact. (D) sustained contact.
QUESTION 20 Cells in the visual cortex that respond only to certain components of a stimulus are known as (A) photoreceptor cone cells. (B) photoreceptor rod cells. (C) feature detector cells. (D) retinal ganglion cells.
QUESTION 22 (1 mark) Rowe et al. (2008) recruited patients with a mean age of 69 years for a visual impairment study. They found that 20.5% of patients had visual perceptual difficulties — considerably higher than the rate in the general population. Determine the most likely biological influence on visual perception for these patients.
QUESTION 23 (2 marks) Describe a function of the cerebellum in memory and identify a relevant problem associated with cerebellum damage.
QUESTION 24 (2 marks) Explain how social media can influence aggression using an example.
QUESTION 25 (3 marks) Van der Meer et al. (2020) recruited participants with strong views on certain social issues to view eight headlines relevant to those issues. The headlines came from media outlets with different political orientations. Participants were asked to rate the likelihood that they would read each article. The study found that participants more often rated articles consistent with their views as ‘highly likely to read’. a) Describe a source of cognitive dissonance from this study. [1 mark] b) Contrast confirmation bias and self-serving bias. Identify which bias was responsible for how participants rated articles. [2 marks]
QUESTION 26 (3 marks) Describe culture shock and explain two ways to reduce it.
QUESTION 27 (3 marks) Hudson (1960) investigated the effects of social influences on visual perception by presenting two-dimensional drawings with pictorial depth cues to participants from different educational and cultural backgrounds. Describe a conclusion of the investigation and identify two specific findings that support this conclusion.
QUESTION 28 (2 marks) Describe ageism and identify a behaviour that may result from it.
QUESTION 29 (2 marks) Explain how perceived competence can lead to increased prosocial behaviour by bystanders in emergencies. Use an example in your response.
QUESTION 30 (5 marks) a) Describe what is meant by an unconditioned response in classical conditioning and provide an example. [2 marks] b) Distinguish between stimulus generalisation and stimulus discrimination in classical conditioning providing an example of each from Pavlov’s (1897/1902) research. [3 marks]
QUESTION 31 (3 marks) Describe multiculturalism and pluralism and identify a difference between them.
QUESTION 1 (4 marks) This question refers to the theory of cognitive dissonance proposed by Festinger (1957). a) Describe implicit attitudes and explain how cognitive dissonance may reveal them. [2 marks] b) Describe identification as a form of social influence and explain how it could lead to cognitive dissonance. [2 marks]
QUESTION 2 (6 marks) Pathological gambling and other impulse control disorders have similar positive emotional effects to natural rewards such as food and social interaction. Research has shown that impulse control and learning can be negatively influenced by the high levels of dopamine provided in dopamine replacement therapy (DRT). DRT is used to treat symptoms of Parkinson’s disease (PD) such as rigidity bradykinesia and resting tremor. Avanzi et al. (2006) examined PD patients undergoing DRT and found that their prevalence of pathological gambling was significantly higher than that of control subjects. a) Describe the physical and psychological functions of dopamine providing an example of each from the investigation. [4 marks] b) Discuss the impact of DRT on PD patients. [2 marks]
QUESTION 3 (9 marks) This question refers to an experiment based on methodology used by Bandura Ross and Ross (1961; 1963a; 1963b). Children were placed in an experimental or control group. In the three experimental groups children observed adult models demonstrating aggressive behaviour towards an inflatable doll. They then saw different levels of reward or punishment following this behaviour. Group 1: Adult rewarded. Group 2: Adult punished. Group 3: Adult received no reward or punishment. Group 4 (the control group): Children saw the doll in the room. No adult interacted with it. The children were then placed alone in the room with the doll and their behaviour was observed through a one-way mirror. The groups were ranked according to the children’s behaviour from most to least aggressive. Experimenters found the order to be Group 1 Group 3 Group 4 and Group 2. a) Explain how explicit long-term memory is required for observational learning. Support your response by providing an example from the experiment. [2 marks] b) Describe vicarious reinforcement using an example from the experiment. [2 marks] c) Compare observational learning with operant conditioning using examples from the experiment. [5 marks]
QUESTION 4 (6 marks) This question refers to the social psychological research conducted by Milgram (1963). a) Draw aconclusion about obedience using evidence from the research. [2 marks] People interpreting the findings of this experiment may conclude that the participants were cruel. b) Describe fundamental attribution errors and explain why this interpretation can be seen as a fundamental attribution error. [2 marks] In a variation on the Milgram experiment (Slater et al. 2006) participants administered a series of word association memory tests to a female virtual character referred to as ‘the Learner’. They were instructed to deliver electric shocks to the Learner in response to errors on the tests. Group 1 saw and heard the Learner as an animation on a screen whereas Group 2 communicated with her only through a text interface. Despite all participants knowing that both the Learner and the shocks were not real they tended to behave as if the situation was real. c) Predict whether the two groups were likely to demonstrate similar levels of obedience. Justify your prediction based on Milgram’s (1963) findings. [2 marks]
QUESTION 6 (4 marks) This question refers to an investigation by Simpson (1987) into the romantic relationships of university students. Participants completed initial surveys about their current relationships addressing elements like satisfaction closeness duration availability of alternative partners and exclusivity. Three months later participants were asked if they were still dating the same person. If participants answered ‘no’ and were not yet seeking a relationship a second survey was completed focusing on the difficulty of emotional adjustment after the dissolution. The results demonstrated that individuals experienced more intense and prolonged distress when they were closer to the former partner had dated them for longer and believed they would have difficulty finding a suitable alternative partner. a) Identify the phase of Rollie and Duck’s (2005) stages of dissolution that the participants completing the second survey were most likely in. Justify your response by referring to the theory. [2 marks] b) Predict which phase of dissolution completing the initial surveys may have triggered in some of the relationships. Justify your prediction by referring to the theory. [2 marks]
QUESTION 1 The peripheral nervous system (PNS) is made up of the (A) _ brain and spinal cord. (B) somatic nervous system and brain. (C) somatic and autonomic nervous systems. (D) spinal cord and autonomic nervous system.
QUESTION 2 The hand movements that musicians use when playing the piano are most likely coordinated by which brain region? (A) thalamus (B) cerebellum (C) prefrontal cortex (D) primary motor cortex
QUESTION 4 The general aggression model (GAM) examines how (A) (B) (C) (D) aggressive responses can be learnt by reinforcement imitation or modelling. aggression is inherited and biological in nature and is expressed both overtly and covertly. person and situation variables influence aggression through the cognitions emotions and arousal they generate. people exposed to aversive situations often experience negative affect and physiological arousal in response to those events.
QUESTION 5 occurs when a gathering of people with an agenda makes problematic decisions because its members value harmony and coherence over accurate analysis and critical evaluation. (A) Groupthink (B) Audience inhibition (C) Cost—benefit analysis (D) Diffusion of responsibility
QUESTION 6 Classical conditioning and operant conditioning are similar because both (A) involve learning through observation. (B) require a model in order for learning to take place. (C) involve associating stimulus with reward and punishment. (D) involve an acquisition process whereby the response is conditioned or learnt.
QUESTION 7 Stimulus generalisation for operant conditioning is described as (A) (B) (C) (D) the tendency to respond to stimuli similar to the conditioned stimuli. the weakening of a response after the removal of a pleasant stimulus. the ability to differentiate between stimuli similar to the conditioned stimuli. the gradual decrease in the strength or rate of a conditioned response following non-reinforcement.
QUESTION 8 Blume (2001) proposed that operant conditioning can be used to explain the behaviour of people who experience addictive behaviours such as substance abuse. In this instance he suggests that people continue to abuse substances because it allows them to avoid withdrawal symptoms that result from cessation. In operant conditioning subjects are continuing to engage in addictive behaviours such as substance abuse as a result of (A) negative punishment. (B) positive punishment. (C) negative reinforcement. (D) positive reinforcement.
QUESTION 9 The shared rules that govern the behaviour of a group of people and enable members of that group to coexist are referred to as (A) culture. (B) assimilation. (C) acculturation. (D) culture shock.
QUESTION 10 Prejudice is defined as (A) the discrepancy between attitudes and behaviours. (B) evaluations or attitudes towards members of particular groups. (C) negative emotional attitudes toward members of a social group. (D) the initial perceptions of another person that affect future beliefs about that person.
QUESTION 11 Scapegoating is defined as (A) prejudice held because of conformity with group views. (B) attitudes formed through direct behavioural experience. (C) apersonality characteristic defined by rigidity inhibition and prejudice. (D) blaming a person or a group for the actions of others or for conditions not of their making.
QUESTION 12 What is the measure of retention that involves identifying previously learnt information from a list or group of alternatives? (A) recall (B) relearning (C) recognition (D) reconstruction
QUESTION 13 A limitation of the working model of memory is that it (A) is very simplistic and without structure. (B) only focuses on the depth of processing memories. (C) emphasises the structure of memory rather than the process of memory. (D) _ predicts that the deeper information is processed the longer a memory trace will last.
QUESTION 14 Mercury poisoning causes neurological damage which leads to an inability to coordinate muscle movements. The region of the brain affected by this damage is the (A) cerebellum. (B) cerebrum. (C) hypothalamus. (D) medulla.
QUESTION 16 Short-term memory is believed to have a capacity of 7 (+/— 2) items. 45612378745 4 items 3 spaces free From the figure above a conclusion that can be drawn about chunking as a strategy is that it (A) (B) (C) (D) enables elaborative rehearsal. assists with maintenance rehearsal. increases the capacity of short-term memory. involves the retrieval of meaningful information from long-term memory.
QUESTION 17 The belief that if someone does something for you then you should do something for them is (A) normative influence. (B) bystander intervention. (C) the reciprocity principle. (D) the social responsibility norm.
QUESTION 18 The phenomenon where people tend to see themselves in a more positive light than others see them 1s known as (A) _ self-serving bias. (B) confirmation bias. (C) _ situational attribution. (D) fundamental attribution error.
QUESTION 19 Darley and Latane’s (1968) model of bystander intervention was developed as a result of the story of Kitty Genovese. The New York Times reported that out of 38 observers to parts of the attack no one came to Kitty’s assistance. According to this model which of the following limited the observers’ tendency to respond? (A) They did not notice the attack as an event. (B) They believed the attack was not an emergency. (C) They thought the personal costs outweighed the benefits. (D) They assumed other people in the area had responsibility.
QUESTION 20 Sensory receptors detecting the presence of or change to a stimulus is known as the process of (A) _ selection. (B) reception. (C) organisation. (D) transmission.
QUESTION 21 Recognising perspective in drawings as in the figure above is a result of (A) cultural processes. (B) physical processes. (C) attentional processes. (D) evolutionary processes.
QUESTION 22 Which statement best describes gender? (A) The sexual characteristics a person possesses. (B) The group of people an individual is sexually attracted to. (C) The range of behaviours considered appropriate for males and females. (D) The psychological meaning of being male or female which is influenced by learning.
QUESTION 23 According to McMillan and Chavis (1986) membership is the feeling of (A) _ sharing history common places and time. (B) being able to make a difference to a group. (C) belonging or sharing a sense of personal relatedness. (D) needs being met by the resources received through membership in a group.
QUESTION 24 The duration of long-term memory is (A) permanent. (B) approximately 5 years. (C) approximately 10 years. (D) approximately 50 years.
QUESTION 25 Which stage of Duck’s stages of dissolution (2006) predicts that the individual reflects on the state of the relationship generally and the partner specifically? (A) dyadic (B) grave-dressing (C) intrapsychic (D) social
QUESTION 26 The mean for the silent study condition was (A) 10.0 (B) 12.0 (C) 14.0 (D) 15.0 In the investigation participants were randomly allocated to either a silent or noisy study condition. In each condition they were instructed to study and learn a novel piece of information. The participants’ memory for this information was then assessed using a multiple choice test. Processed data is presented in the figure below. 16.0 © 15.0 Se 14.0 2 13.0 ym 12.0 = 11.0 = 10.0 ie) Zs = 8. 5 7.0 5 6.0 E 50 | = 40 2 3.0 S 2.0 Z 1.0 0.0 Silent Noisy Study condition
QUESTION 27 The most accurate conclusion that can be drawn about the standard deviation error bars is that the (A) data for the noisy study condition has greater variability than the data for the silent study condition. (B) data for the silent study condition has greater variability than the data for the noisy study condition. (C) data for the noisy study condition has similar variability to the data for the silent study condition. (D) two conditions are not statistically significantly different from each other. In the investigation participants were randomly allocated to either a silent or noisy study condition. In each condition they were instructed to study and learn a novel piece of information. The participants’ memory for this information was then assessed using a multiple choice test. Processed data is presented in the figure below. 16.0 15.0 = 14.0 2 13.0 ym 12.0 = 11.0 <= 10.0 >) 2 8 e. . 5S 7.0 [5 60 = 50 f— E 40 2 3.0 S 2.0 Z 1.0 0.0 Silent Noisy Study condition
QUESTION 28 Researchers analysed the results using a Mann—Whitney U test. The p value was set at p < 0.05. The calculated result was p = 0.01. An inference that can be made about the results is that the p value of p = 0.01 (A) indicates that there is a statistically significant difference between the silent and noisy study conditions. (B) indicates that there is no statistically significant difference between the silent and noisy study conditions. (C) proves that there is a difference between the silent and noisy study conditions. (D) does not allow a conclusion to be drawn. In the investigation participants were randomly allocated to either a silent or noisy study condition. In each condition they were instructed to study and learn a novel piece of information. The participants’ memory for this information was then assessed using a multiple choice test. Processed data is presented in the figure below. 16.0 © 15.0 eS 14.0 2 13.0 » 12.0 = 11.0 <= 10.0 [> ) 2 8) = 8. 5S 7.0 [5 60 = 50 f— E 40 > 3.0 5S 2.0 (>) Z 1.0 0.0 Silent Noisy Study condition
QUESTION 29 Which of the following is an example of the Miiller-Lyer visual illusion? (A) (B) | (C) (D) NEZ SIN
QUESTION 31 (2 marks) Draw a diagram to show the process of neurotransmitter release within neurotransmission. Label the diagram with an X at the point where neurotransmitter release occurs.
QUESTION 32 (3 marks) Describe group social influence with reference to compliance and internalisation.
QUESTION 33 (2 marks) Describe prejudice expressed as ageism using an example.
QUESTION 34 (3 marks) In an experiment by Wispe & Drambarean (1953) participants were either given food or deprived of food for a period of time prior to experimentation. In the experiment researchers flashed either neutral or food-related words on a screen. They found that participants who were deprived of food more readily recognised the food-related words. Explain how motivation influences visual perception with reference to psychological and physiological factors. Provide an example from the experiment.
QUESTION 35 (2 marks) Describe how empathy can influence prosocial behaviour using an example.
QUESTION 36 (2 marks) Describe one way to reduce prejudice using an example.
QUESTION 37 (3 marks) Investigators at the University of Illinois (2010) reported that children who grow up as an only child (i.e. without brothers or sisters) are more likely to develop social skills through friends as opposed to children who grow up with brothers or sisters. It was suggested that parents with only one child should encourage social experiences through childcare preschool or play dates. Explain the difference between primary and secondary socialisation. Provide examples from the investigation.
QUESTION 38 (1 mark) Distinguish between modelling and vicarious conditioning.
QUESTION 39 (1 mark) Distinguish between the role of glutamate (Glu) and gamma-amino butyric acid (GABA) in the brain.
QUESTION 40 (1 mark) Describe explicit racism.
QUESTION 41 (4 marks) Graduates of international schools abroad usually return to their home countries because of study and work restrictions in their host countries. Many choose to return to study at universities in their home countries. Gaw (2000) sought to investigate the experiences of returning international students. The research found that overseas-experienced students are an extremely diversified population. Many of these students when re-entering their home cultures encounter readjustment issues similar to culture shock and as a result struggle to acculturate back to their home country’s way of life. Explain how culture shock and acculturation can be psychological challenges of immigration. Support your response with real-world examples that are relevant to the investigation.
QUESTION 42 (1 mark) Identify the significance of the experiment by Asch (1951) for social psychological research today.
QUESTION 1 (5 marks) This question refers to the investigation conducted by Tajfel (1970). Tajfel defined social norms as ‘an individual’s expectation of how others expect [them] to behave and [their] expectation of how others will behave in any given social situation’. a) Predict how social norms may have influenced the behaviour of the participants in Tajfel’s investigation. [1 mark] b) Explain how the investigation was significant for the development of social identity theory with reference to two out of the three elements. Use examples from the investigation to support your conclusions. [4 marks]
QUESTION 2 (9 marks) This question refers to the case study conducted by Watson and Rayner (1920). a) b) C) d) e) Describe learned fear responses using an example from the case study. If investigators had been able to obtain an fMRI of Albert B’s brain during conditioning which discrete area of the brain would have responded? In the conditioning of Albert B identify the unconditioned stimulus (UCS) and the unconditioned response (UCR) by using examples from the case study. Distinguish between stimulus generalisation and stimulus discrimination using an example from the case study. Describe extinction using an example from the case study. [2 marks] [1 mark] [2 marks] [2 marks] [2 marks]
QUESTION 3 (6 marks) This question refers to the experiment conducted by Ross Amabile and Steinmetz (1977). Researchers looked at role-advantaged and role-disadvantaged actors. They suggested that social perceivers characteristically fail to make the necessary allowances and consequently draw inaccurate social conclusions. The roles studied were those of the questioner and the contestant in a general knowledge quiz. After being randomly assigned these roles (by flipping a coin in their presence) both subjects heard a description of their own role and that of their co-participant. The questioner’s duties consisted of preparing ten ‘challenging but not impossible’ questions from their own store of general knowledge and then posing them to the contestant whose only duty was to try to answer those questions. Finally at the conclusion of the session the two participants and outside observers in a subsequent re-enactment were required to rate the questioner’s and the contestant’s general knowledge. a) Explain the types of explicit long-term memory using examples from the experiment. [4 marks] b) Identify the type of attribution all participants used when rating the performance of the contestants in the experiment. [1 mark] c) Identify the type of attribution all participants should have used when rating the performance of the contestants in the experiment. [1 mark]
QUESTION 4 (8 marks) This question refers to the investigation conducted by Tidwell Eastwick and Finkel (2013). Researchers aimed to investigate whether actual or perceived similarity led to greater romantic attraction. To do this participants completed a questionnaire that assessed several personality traits. They then attended a speed-dating event. During the event participants had 12 one-on-one dates with individuals of the opposite sex. Each date lasted for approximately four minutes at which point the participants were instructed to stand and move on to their next date. During the dates participants were encouraged to find out about their dates’ personalities interests and personal histories in order to get to know them. Immediately following each date participants completed an interaction questionnaire where they recorded their dates’ perceived characteristics (e.g. physically attractive charismatic) their perceived similarity and their romantic liking. From this the researchers calculated actual and perceived similarity for each pair. The results indicated that perceived similarity significantly predicted romantic attraction. a) During the speed-dating events the frontal lobes of participants would have shown high levels of activity. Recall two specific functions of the frontal lobe and identify an example of each from the investigation. [4 marks] b) Identify what origin of attraction was investigated. Provide evidence from the investigation that supports the origin identified. [2 marks] c) Describe a biological theory of attraction. Provide an example from the investigation that would support this theory. [2 marks]
QUESTION 5 (8 marks) This question refers to the experiment conducted by Bargh Chen and Burrows (1996). In the experiment researchers sought to explore whether attitudes could be automatically activated. a) Describe implicit attitudes using an example from the experiment. [2 marks] As part of the methodology participants were primed with stereotypes about older people. b) Describe stereotypes with reference to the tri-component model of attitudes. Provide examples from the experiment of two components of the model. [6 marks]
QUESTION 6 (4 marks) This question refers to an experiment that partially modified the methodology from Question 5 devised by Bargh Chen and Burrows (1996). In the experiment data was collected from two different Psychology classes (A and B). Scatterplots of the data for Class A and Class B are provided below. 10.0 = 9.5 Ft ~ 90 [-P) : 8.5 Sp 8.0 & 27.5 lor} = 7.0 - & 6.5 = 6.0 10.0 - 95 F - 9.0 [-) : 8.5 Sp 8.0 = 7.5 = = 7.0 2 65 => . 6.0 Class A e @ @ e 2 4 6 8 Number of older people primes in scrambled-sentence task Class B e e e e 2 4 6 8 Number of older people primes in scrambled-sentence task 10 10 a) Predict the Pearson correlation coefficient (7) that belongs to each Psychology class by completing the table below. b) Contrast what the two Pearson correlation coefficients suggest about the relationship observed during the investigation. [1 mark] [2 marks] c) Draw aconclusion about the relationship between mean walking time and the number of older people primes for Psychology Class A. [1 mark]
QUESTION 2 Which of the following is an inhibitory neurotransmitter located in the brain? (A) serotonin (B) dopamine (C) glutamate (D) gamma-aminobutyric acid
QUESTION 11 The type of social influence in which a person acts in the same way as the group although they may not agree with everything the majority does is known as (A) obedience. (B) compliance. (C) identification. (D)_ internalisation.
QUESTION 3 Explicit attitudes are (A) aperson’s conscious views towards people objects or concepts. (B) learned ideas we hold about ourselves others objects and experiences. (C) positive and negative evaluations that are not accessible to our conscious awareness. (D) oversimplified images of people who belong to a particular group causing them to appear more similar than they are.
QUESTION 37 (1 mark) Describe spontaneous recovery as it relates to operant conditioning.
QUESTION 21 Cole (2013) asked participants to estimate the distance to a target location. Researchers had measured the waist-to-hip ratios of participants and manipulated their motivational states. They concluded that these two factors interacted to affect visual perception. Which of the following biological influences on visual perception best describes this study with regards to distance perception? (A) ageing (B) genetics (C) cultural skills (D) psychological make-up
QUESTION 11 The type of social influence in which a person acts in the same way as the group although they may not agree with everything the majority does is known as (A) obedience. (B) compliance. (C) identification. (D)_ internalisation.
QUESTION 4 Which brain region is responsible for spatial abilities? (A) prefrontal cortex (B) temporal lobe (C) hippocampus (D) amygdala
QUESTION 19 Which statement does not describe the general aggression model? (A) It examines how blocking a person’s attainment of a goal can lead to aggression. (B) It proposes that aggression is an innate biological drive and we must adapt in order to control it. (C) It examines how person and situation input variables influence aggression through the cognitions emotions and arousal they generate. (D) It proposes that aggression is directly learnt and aggressive acts carried out by a model will be internalised by an individual and reproduced.
QUESTION 15 Which memory technique involves linking new information to existing knowledge to support encoding? (A) maintenance rehearsal (B) elaborative rehearsal (C) method of loci (D) SQ4R
QUESTION 15 When other memories cause problems with the retrieval of information from long-term memory this is known as (A) retrieval failure. (B) encoding failure. (C) interference effects. (D) motivated forgetting.
QUESTION 30 Symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease are possibly caused by a decrease in the production of (A) dopamine. (B) epinephrine. (C) acetylcholine. (D) norepinephrine.
QUESTION 1 What is the mean walking time? (A) (B) (C) (D) 8.05 s 8.125 8.28 s 9.12 s
QUESTION 1 X indicates neurotransmitters (A) binding to postsynaptic receptor sites. (B) reaching the threshold of excitation. (C) crossing the synaptic cleft. (D) leaving synaptic vesicles.
QUESTION 1 Which of the following conditions had the least variability? Study condition Test condition Mean score Standard Mean score Standard deviation deviation test (/10) Multiple choice | Silent test SE (A) silent multiple choice test with the silent study condition (B) silent multiple choice test with the noisy study condition (C) noisy multiple choice test with the silent study condition (D) noisy multiple choice test with the noisy study condition
QUESTION 21 (2 marks) Describe extinction after operant conditioning and provide an example.
QUESTION 32 (2 marks) Describe two roles of the hippocampus in memory formation.
QUESTION 8 The hippocampus plays a critical role in (A) encoding long-term memory. (B) mathematical spatial and logical reasoning. (C) implicit memory of learnt skills and actions. (D) facial recognition and object identification and location.
QUESTION 7 The key protein associated with Parkinson’s disease is (A) (B) (C) (D) dipeptide repeat. alpha-synuclein. beta amyloid. tau.
QUESTION 31 (2 marks) Describe prejudice expressed as sexism using an example.
QUESTION 3 A shortage of serotonin has been associated with (A) euphoria and hyperactivity. (B) suppressed appetite and phobias. (C) migraine and increased heart rate. (D) lower levels of sleep and depression.
QUESTION 3 A valid inference that may be drawn from the data is that Study condition Test condition Mean score Standard Mean score Standard deviation deviation Short answer test (/10) test (/15) (A) silent study conditions result in better test performances. (B) matching study and test conditions result in higher test scores. (C) contrasting study and test conditions result in higher test scores. (D) multiple choice tests are a better measure of overall performance.
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