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QUESTION 2 As a method of resource extraction stoping would be best used for (A) an evenly distributed low concentration gold deposit at a depth of 50 to 500 m. (B) base metals in a massive deposit at a depth greater than 500 m. (C) apetroleum reservoir in an anticlinal trap at 500 m depth. (D) high concentration mineral sand deposits at 500 m depth.
QUESTION 3 In which two locations would the process of fracking occur? (A) Land Ill (B) LandIV (C) Mand Ill (D) IV and VI
Difficulty: C
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Paper 1
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2020
QUESTION 6 Iron is most often formed within higher concentration bands because (A) (B) (C) (D) high rainfall leads to the concentration of iron ore due to leaching. higher porosity reservoir rocks allow high concentrations of iron ore to precipitate under a cap rock. zones within convergent plate boundaries cause high-pressure mineral assemblages to form in distinct zones. the high density of iron leads to it being concentrated in the deeper parts of channels found within sedimentary basins.
QUESTION 7 What is the minimum requirement for maintaining a sustainable flow of water in a river system? (A) maintaining the level of water extraction below annual recharge (B) _ stabilising the riparian vegetation along the river system (C) constructing flood levees to control water flow (D) maintaining biodiversity in the river ecosystem
QUESTION 9 In a regional river system which of the following 1s most likely to increase the risk of salinity? (A) lower water extraction from the river system (B) increased nutrient run-off from pastures (C) an algal bloom in the river system (D) long periods of drought
QUESTION 10 Which of the following is an example of an ecosystem-supporting service? (A) carbon sequestration (B) provisioning of food and water (C) cycling and purification of water (D) providing a habitat for plants and animals
QUESTION 12 Which of the following best describes the ore separation process used in this flotation machine? Ore slurry input at Air pumped in at Tailings exit at Il Il
QUESTION 14 These figures show different methods of sampling that can be used to measure an unknown variable. Which scenario would create the most effective program to monitor changes in soil pH associated with groundwater movement from a mining operation moving away from the central sector? (A) grid sampling with bulking (B) spatially dense sampling (C) targeted sampling with bulking (D) frequent sampling at a few representative monitoring plots
Difficulty: A
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Paper 1
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2020
QUESTION 15 siltstone Q What is the most likely type of mineral resource to be found at location A? (A) banded iron ore (B) mineral sands (C) bauxite (D) gold
QUESTION 18 (5 marks) This question refers to Stimulus 2 and 3 in the stimulus book. A mine that opened in 2014 was surrounded by semi-open woodland. As part of the mine’s environmental plan soil pH was monitored at four sites around the mine. The distribution of three native grass species a woody weed species and an annual weed species was also monitored and recorded. a) Draw aconclusion about which plant species were negatively affected by the operation of the mine. Use data from the stimulus to support your response. [2 marks] b) Draw aconclusion about which monitoring site the data in Stimulus 3 was recorded at. Justify your conclusion using evidence from Stimulus 2 and 3. [3 marks]
QUESTION 19 (6 marks) This question refers to Stimulus 4 in the stimulus book. a) Contrast the data to draw a conclusion about the potential to maintain a sustainable ecological footprint by using hydroponic systems to grow agricultural crops instead of conventional methods. b) Determine a method to reduce the ecological footprint associated with using hydroponic systems for agricultural production. Describe your reasoning. [4 marks] [2 marks]
QUESTION 20 (13 marks) This question refers to Stimulus 5 6 and 7 in the stimulus book. a) Use Stimulus 5 to contrast the percentage change in the commercial catch of blue swimmer crabs and spanner crabs between 2008 and 2017. [5 marks] b) Use Stimulus 5-7 to draw conclusions about the long-term sustainability of each crab species as commercial native biota. Justify your conclusions using two pieces of evidence for each crab species from any of the stimulus. [6 marks] c) Use Stimulus 6 and 7 to explain two ways to improve the sustainability of either crab species. [2 marks]
QUESTION 1 (9 marks) a) Identify an introduced animal or plant species and explain two reasons why this species is classified as a pest. [3 marks] Introduced species: b) Using a case study about an anthropogenic activity other than introducing a pest species discuss three positive and three negative human influences on the sustainability of an ecosystem on a local scale. [6 marks] Anthropogenic activity:
QUESTION 4 (6 marks) This question refers to Stimulus 3 in the stimulus book. a) Explain how turbidity ponds are used. [2 marks] b) Draw aconclusion about the effectiveness of the turbidity management strategy at the mine site. Justify your conclusion. [4 marks]
QUESTION 5 (12 marks) a) Describe the process of eutrophication. Using the data in Stimulus 4 in the stimulus book explain why eutrophication would occur in the creek. Infer where this process is likely to have taken place providing two reasons to support your inference. [9 marks] b) To mitigate the potential effects of the sewage water was released from a dam located further upstream. Propose three ways that this release would improve water quality. [3 marks]
QUESTION 6 (15 marks) This question refers to Stimulus 5 and 6 in the stimulus book. a) Justify the decision of the Puerto Rican government to move the Department of Civil Defense to Ponce instead of Mayagiiez referring to both stimulus to support your response. [S marks] b) Identify appropriate design considerations necessary to mitigate the effect of natural hazards on a new Department of Civil Defense building in Ponce. [7 marks]
QUESTION 1 Which properties would the fraction labelled X on the diagram exhibit? (A) high viscosity and low volatility (B) low volatility and a low boiling point (C) high flammability and high volatility (D) low flammability and a high boiling point
QUESTION 2 Economical gold-bearing layers are most likely located in (A) asedimentary sequence with an organic-rich source rock. (B) fractures and joints surrounding a massive granite body. (C) joint planes in an exhalative massive sulfide complex. (D) an alluvial deposit in an igneous granite complex.
QUESTION 4 Which renewable energy source includes an energy transformation that relies on pressurised gas to drive turbines? (A) geothermal (B) fossil fuels (C) nuclear (D) solar
QUESTION 5 Mineral sands deposits are formed (A) in higher porosity reservoir rocks allowing greater concentrations of ore minerals to precipitate under a cap rock. (B) by the weathering of mineral-rich rocks and subsequent dissolution of minerals into oceans and streams. (C) by the physical concentration of eroded mineral grains into placer deposits due to their specific gravity. (D) in convergent plate boundaries causing high-pressure mineral assemblages to form in distinct zones.
QUESTION 6 The graph shows new hardwood and softwood plantations and the removal of trees in a designated region between 2007 and 2015. The region holds pre-2007 plantation reserves of 94 000 ha for hardwood and 89 000 ha for softwood. 90 80 Key 70 || new softwood plantations new hardwood plantations || softwood removal 60 50 40 hardwood removal 30 Area (’000 ha) N So INN LLL VZZZZ) ZZZZZI [+ + | + 2007 2008 2009 2010 2011 2012 2013 2014 2015 Year Calculate the approximate hardwood plantations remaining at the end of 2013. (A) 52000 ha (B) 93000ha (C) 146000 ha (D) 238000 ha
QUESTION 8 Which abiotic factor naturally reduces the growth of algal blooms in the waters of temperate lakes? (A) increasing fish populations (B) increasing nutrient levels (C) decreasing temperature (D) decreasing salinity
QUESTION 9 The principles of ecologically sustainable development support (A) extracting water from a river system 1f environmental flows are maintained. (B) using native forests and hardwood plantations to produce wood products. (C) using steel rather than timber in all new housing developments. (D) importing fish from overseas to conserve local fish stocks.
QUESTION 10 Which anthropogenic factor would most likely affect the sustainable population of native biota? (A) (B) (C) (D) changes to average seasonal rainfall introduction of a new species for biological control increased salinity in rivers through saltwater intrusion planting of grass strips in agricultural systems to reduce erosion
QUESTION 11 The table shows primary environmental data collected and used to make decisions about Fire Danger Index (FDI) values. Location Days since Maximum Relative Wind speed Fuel load Fire Danger last rainfall average humidity (km/h) and | (tonne/ha) Index (FDI) daytime (%) direction temperature According to this data which environmental factors had the greatest influence on determining the Fire Danger Index values? (A) temperature and fuel load (B) rainfall and wind speed (C) humidity and fuel load (D) rainfall and humidity
QUESTION 13 In which two locations would you most likely find oil and water respectively? Locations
QUESTION 14 Hyperspectral imaging is mostly used in mineral and energy resource exploration to (A) (B) (C) (D) detect changes in the magnetic fields surrounding ore bodies at depth. identify gravitational anomalies associated with certain mineral assemblages. outline water courses associated with fractures and joint patterns in igneous complexes. detect changes in vegetation growing in different soil types that are affected by the underlying geochemistry.
QUESTION 17 (5 marks) a) b) Identify which years on the Southern Oscillation Index (SOI) graph in Stimulus 4 in the stimulus book represent the climatic conditions at X from Stimulus 5 in the stimulus book. Justify your response using evidence from the graph. Identify which years in Stimulus 4 were likely to have the largest recharge of natural river systems in the location marked by X in Stimulus 5. Explain your reasoning. [3 marks] [2 marks]
QUESTION 19 (4 marks) Describe two geochemical techniques used in mineral exploration.
QUESTION 20 (6 marks) Identify two possible environmental risks that could be noted in an environmental impact assessment (EIA) for a new gold mine. Propose a strategy to mitigate each risk and explain the principle behind each Strategy. Risk: Strategy: Principle behind strategy: Risk: Strategy: Principle behind strategy:
QUESTION 21 (3 marks) Use Stimulus 7 in the stimulus book to determine the depth and thickness of the coal seam/s. Justify your response using evidence from the stimulus.
QUESTION 22 (7 marks) Explain how clearing a mangrove ecosystem would affect the net contribution of greenhouse gases for the area being cleared. In your response identify gas exchanges in plants and soil substrates.
QUESTION 1 (6 marks) Describe each separation process and identify an ore used and the mineral extracted. a) Milling [3 marks] b) Sluicing [3 marks]
QUESTION 2 (4 marks) Identify one way that coal mining can have an environmental impact on the biosphere and hydrosphere and propose a method for monitoring each impact. a) Biosphere [2 marks] b) Hydrosphere [2 marks]
QUESTION 3 (6 marks) Use Stimulus | in the stimulus book to draw a conclusion about the effectiveness of the sulfur dioxide management program. Justify your conclusion using three pieces of evidence. Identify two limitations in the data.
QUESTION 5 (10 marks) a) b) Use Stimulus 3 and 4 in the stimulus book to infer the impacts that changes in climatic conditions will have on crop productivity for Site A and Site B. Justify each inference with one piece of evidence from each stimulus. For each site propose a strategy that could be used to protect or enhance agricultural production. Justify your proposals using data from the stimulus. [6 marks] [4 marks]
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QUESTION 7 (11 marks) This question refers to Stimulus 5—8 in the stimulus book. In January 2020 it was claimed that ‘management of the Namoi River catchment has had a negative impact on the availability and quality of fresh water in local ecosystems’. Water restrictions for general use in towns in the catchment area were implemented in December 2019 to increase the availability and quality of fresh water for local ecosystems. a) Draw aconclusion about whether the catchment has been managed effectively. Provide two reasons to support your conclusion. [3 marks] b) Discuss the claim made about the management of the catchment by using the stimulus to identify three possible causes and associated impacts on the local ecosystem. Propose and justify a solution to address the impacts. [8 marks]
QUESTION 1 The cross-section of land shows the layer profile and the location of an oil and gas reserve. a 8 fe QO 16g 8 9 ii To Ore Pe tte: tO So tt ee ae - are) OO weg . 0 O°O ws 2 0 . we oo °. - . a * . . ‘os . . 7 . :- : oO 8770. 7 ope 8 go 88 8 go. O80 Oe . 7 858 50m I ED OES DE ee’ 5 g¢ Je .ths 3.6 Porous sandstone -:..¢:. fot soto eg Boe tL peek >. ete lo o.oo”. a se Sf es ae nr seg. Oo O°. seg Je O° “9 eo : OP ce: ret 2 re ou . fo o. BP Oe Ol ge Oe eel gs Op 8 i oo eh . . --. Porous sandstone oo o. ob we : o- 9.07 tote 0+ 9.07. L: toe! 4° Non-porous cap rock Oil and gas rich shale Where is the most suitable location to extract crude oil? (A) I (B) I (C) Il (D) IV
QUESTION 2 Stoping is the process of extracting an ore or mineral (A) found close to the Earth’s surface. (B) from the bottom of an artificial pond. (C) from an underground mine leaving behind an open space. (D) across a horizontal plane creating arrays with natural supporting columns.
QUESTION 6 Which option best describes the effect of dam provisioning? Water availability downstream Water quality of dam ee (a) |) ow | tw
QUESTION 9 It can be inferred from the graph that (A) (B) (C) (D) the amount of forest has increased since 2006. abandoned agricultural land increased the amount of forest. shrubland litter was the least effective at converting its carbon into below-ground biomass. the carbon sequestration rate from highest to lowest is soil above-ground biomass below-ground biomass and litter. QUESTIONS 9-10 These questions refer to the study by Sil et al. (2017) of carbon sequestration and carbon pools in a large area of mixed land use between 1990 and 2020. — — KR A Go & — N on) 1.00 Carbon sequestration rate (Mg C ha ! yr ') So o2) jo) 0.60 0.40 0.20 0.00 Total Above-ground Below-ground Soil organic Detrital organic biomass biomass carbon matter (litter) Key LJ Mixed land use Abandoned agricultural i Forest Shrubland 1990-2006 land 2007-2020 2007-2020 2007-2020
QUESTION 10 What percentage of carbon sequestration does shrubland above-ground biomass contribute to shrubland’s total carbon sequestration rate? (A) 0.18% (B) 3.7% (C) 9.0% (D) 18.0%
QUESTION 12 The graph shows a yield curve for fishing. Increasing catch per year —» Increasing fishing effort —» Aboriginal peoples’ and Torres Strait Islander peoples’ traditional harvest is best represented by (A) I. (B) IL. (C) Il. (D) IV.
QUESTION 13 A farmer has land affected by high salinity. Which solution would have the most impact on reducing it? (A) pump deep groundwater out (B) plant shallow-rooted crops (C) reduce surface drainage (D) initiate deep tillage
QUESTION 14 Fracking causes gas to be released after (A) drilling into rock and exposing layers to intense heat. (B) injecting water sand and chemicals into rock layers. (C) injecting hot water into soft shale reserves. (D) drilling into subsurface gas reserves.
QUESTION 15 The table shows the abundance of benthic foraminifera species recorded at four sites after a major oceanic oil spill. Species Pre-spill average Distance from oil spill (km) (% abundance + % error) 2 fo 100 ~ % abundance ee ee ee se ee ee ee ee Which species have definitely been affected by the oil spill? (A) land3 (B) 3and5 (C) 1 3 and 5 (D) 1 2 3 4 and 5
QUESTION 16 (6 marks) The diagram shows a surface geological map of a region where a mine to extract ilmenite rutile leucoxene and zircon is proposed. 31.0°S Key Hi Quaternary dunes Quaternary deposits 31.1°S | | [J Cenozoic sand plain Mi Cenozoic duricrust Cretaceous deposits 31.2°S8 4 Proposed mine 31.3°S 31.4°S 31.5°S LHS5.6°E WS.7°E LIS.8°E LIS.9°E 116.0°E a) Predict the viability of the proposed mine site based on the geological setting. Justify your prediction. [2 marks] b) Identify a direct sampling technique that could verify the quality of the deposit and explain why this technique would be suitable. [2 marks] c) Identify a suitable extraction method. Justify your response. [2 marks]
QUESTION 19 (5 marks) A study was conducted when a sudden algal bloom was discovered in a waterway that runs adjacent to a dairy paddock. Fertiliser had been applied to the paddock several weeks before. Dissolved oxygen pH and turbidity were measured at various distances from the source of the waterway. — Value So FPF NO W BN Any ww WO Oo CW F—>r'rklkhe SW FF SS Ww je>hh Y Uj Uj 7 U; SSL > e SG 'r>e>e. 0 40 60 8 Distance from water source (m) fo) No om) — S&S jo) Key [Dissolved oxygen (ppm) pH WW! Turbidity (NTU) Draw a conclusion about possible anthropogenic causes of the algal bloom. Show your reasoning referring to each variable measured in the graph.
QUESTION 20 (5 marks) The map models changes in winter sea surface temperature from 2006 to 2100. 30.0°S 35.0°S Melbourne 40.0°S 45.0°S / _\ 140.0° E 150.0° E 160.0° E a) Explain a likely change in fisheries distribution and sustainability in area A. b) Identify a mitigation strategy for the change identified in Question 20a) that could be implemented by the Australian government. c) Identify a mitigation strategy for the change identified in Question 20a) that could be implemented by local fisheries. Temperature change (°C) [3 marks] [1 mark] [1 mark]
QUESTION 6 (14 marks) This question refers to Stimulus 5 in the stimulus book. a) Determine a site for a new coal mine in the area. Justify the location of the mine using three pieces of evidence and a method of extraction. [6 marks] b) Describe the impact of the mine on the hydrosphere geosphere biosphere and atmosphere and their associated environmental monitoring strategies. [8 marks]
QUESTION 1 Sluicing separates metallic resources based on (A) solubility. (B) melting point. (C) specific gravity. (D) hydrophobic properties.
QUESTION 2 Where is the most likely location for gold-bearing quartz reefs? (A) asedimentary sequence with an organic-rich source rock (B) fractures and joints surrounding a massive granite body (C) joint planes in an exhalative massive sulphide complex (D) an alluvial deposit in an igneous granite complex
QUESTION 3 The operational time of a mineral sands quarry is limited because mineral sands (A) are replenished within a human lifespan. (B) have a greater deposition rate than extraction rate. (C) are formed from source rock through slow geological processes. (D) are formed from the decomposition of plants and animals from millions of years ago.
QUESTION 4 Carbon sequestration is an example of which ecosystem service? (A) cultural (B) regulating (C) supporting (D) provisioning
QUESTION 8 Which inference is supported by the graphs? (A) The ideal humidity level to reduce particulate matter is 80%. (B) Humidity has the most impact on particulate matter during summer. (C) Increased humidity results in a decrease in particulate matter concentration. (D) Higher concentrations of particulate matter are more resistant to changes in humidity.
Difficulty: B
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Paper 1
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2023
QUESTION 9 A geological map of India is shown. COT Oe eee 8 Se hOhlUP Oe ween neeewee ween saaae Key 4 Recent and pleistocene (sedimentary) #2 Deccan Trap (igneous) §) Pre-Cambrian (metamorphic) MB Gondwana and Vindhyan (metamorphic) A viable location to explore for coal is (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
QUESTION 15 The best type of survey to identify underground petroleum is (A) seismic. (B) magnetic. (C) radioactive. (D) hyperspectral.
QUESTION 16 Geological and weather conditions for four locations are shown. Location | Tectonic Distance Average Average Average Elevation activity from coast | wind speed | annual sunshine | annual rainfall | above sea (km) (km/h) (hours) (mm) level (m) Moderate 1549 Moderate 1653 High 9 10 15.000 1322 2030 Compared to locations 1 3 and 4 location 2 is the most suitable location for which form of renewable energy? (A) solar (B) wind (C) geothermal (D) hydroelectric
QUESTION 17 The graph shows the volume of water in a local dam as a proportion of its capacity. 100 Xe) ro) ioe) om) I i) Volume (% capacity) as | 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016 2017 2018 2019 2020 2021 2022 Year The locality experienced a flooding event in 2013. The change in dam capacity between X and Y can be explained by (A) an overflow of the dam wall causing catastrophic dam failure. (B) arelease of environmental flow water from the dam. (C) asecondary flooding event. (D) further significant rainfall.
QUESTION 19 The best tests to monitor soil structure are (A) moisture and organic carbon. (B) volume and erosion pattern. (C) particle size and air space. (D) pH and salinity.
QUESTION 20 The graph shows spawning stock biomass and fishing pressure for North Sea cod between 1963 and 2002. The maximum sustainable yield measured by fishing pressure is (A) 1.15 (B) 0.95 (C) 0.75 (D) 0.55
Difficulty: C
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Paper 1
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2023
QUESTION 21 (7 marks) a) Describe the concept of an ecological footprint and state its unit of measure. [2 marks] b) Identify an example of a biological resource and four factors that would be considered when calculating its ecological footprint. [5 marks]
QUESTION 22 (9 marks) a) Identify three steps involved in separating iron metal from iron ore. [3 marks] b) Explain the separation processes identified in Question 22a) referring to the properties of iron or iron ore. [6 marks]
QUESTION 23 (14 marks) A business wants to install a renewable energy farm to partially offset its electricity consumption over the next 10 years. A summary of the two options is shown. Form of Initial cost | Annual cost Rate of energy Average working renewable energy production (kW) time (hours per day) a) b) Cc) Determine the average annual cost ($/year) annual energy production (kWh/year) and average energy cost (c/kWh) for i) solar. [3 marks] li) wind. [3 marks] Justify a conclusion about the most cost-effective form of renewable energy for the business. [2 marks] Explain a technological environmental and geographical factor that the business should consider when choosing a solar or wind farm. [6 marks]
QUESTION 1 (7 marks) Refer to Stimulus 1 in the stimulus book. a) Explain why groundwater is a renewable resource. [1 mark] b) Explain the change in recharge between 1970 and 2023. Support your response using evidence from the graphs. [3 marks] c) Make a justified prediction about the future sustainability of groundwater in the basin. [3 marks]
Difficulty: B
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Paper 2
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2023
QUESTION 3 (16 marks) Refer to Stimulus 3 in the stimulus book. a) b) Cc) d) Determine whether the northern or southern basin is most likely to be experiencing drought. Support your response using evidence from the map. Explain how dams are distributed in the Murray—Darling Basin. Support your response with evidence from the map. Identify a physical and biological strategy to reduce the impact of a future drought in the Murray—Darling Basin. Explain your reasoning. Predict one impact of drought on a terrestrial ecosystem and one impact on an aquatic ecosystem in the Murray—Darling Basin. Explain your reasoning. [2 marks] [4 marks] [6 marks] [4 marks]
QUESTION 6 (18 marks) Refer to Stimulus 6 in the stimulus book. a) Determine the financial value of the sample for all metals recoverable at the optimal pH for iron extraction. Show your working. The mining company decides to minimise its costs by extracting only two metals. b) Determine an alternative pH to maximise the financial value of the sample for two recoverable metals. Show your working. c) Which pH should the company use to process the sample? Justify your response. [8 marks] [8 marks] [2 marks]
QUESTION 2 A major sustainable component of seaweed fertiliser is brown algae. This is because depletion of this resource (A) is less than the rate of replenishment. (B) is greater than the rate of replenishment. (C) is less than the annual yield of the resource. (D) is greater than the supply of the natural resource.
QUESTION 3 During the last decade a dingo control program was implemented in the Granite Belt region to reduce loss of lambs. This resulted in an increase in the population of wallabies and feral cats and a decrease in the population of rat species. The program also resulted in a loss of native plant species. With this decrease in plant species the population of herbivore species decreased. A decision was made to stop the control program and erect dingo fencing around native parks to allow numbers to recover. Which of the following scenarios presents the most likely consequences of stopping the dingo control program? (A) dingo population increased wallaby population decreased flora unaffected (B) dingo population decreased wallaby population decreased flora unaffected (C) dingo population increased wallaby population unaffected flora unaffected (D) wallaby population decreased flora increased insects and bird populations increased
QUESTION 6 The froth flotation process involves (A) creating bubbles to which wanted material adheres. (B) adding surfactants to achieve a hydrophilic surface charge. (C) aerating the slurry to create a froth that contains unwanted material. (D) adding a slurry of fine powder and water to allow clay particles to be separated.
QUESTION 8 The following diagram represents a cross-section from an area explored for coal. Soil: Alluvium Coal Shale Conglomerate Sandstone Limestone Which of the following extraction processes would be used to remove coal in the area between points X and Y on the diagram? (A) fracking (B) onshore drilling (C) open-cut mining (D) underground mining
QUESTION 9 Which of the following statements is correct? (A) Metallic resources are an example of a non-renewable resource. (B) Metallic and energy resources are always found in sedimentary rocks. (C) Metallic non-metallic and energy resources are sourced and extracted from minerals. (D) Metallic resources non-metallic resources and energy resources are malleable and ductile.
QUESTION 10 Which of the following geological locations would be most likely to contain a coal deposit? (A) adomed limestone outcrop (B) the outermost band of a contact metamorphic zone (C) asedimentary basin in which strata contain leaf fossils (D) a fault-bound stratigraphic trap containing marine fossils
QUESTION 11 The contour map below shows the distribution of mineral sands. The contours represent the percentage of oxides in the sand. The ore deposit is considered viable if the concentration of oxides is at least 10%. The most viable location to mine is (A) Location A. (B) Location B. (C) Location C. (D) Location D.
QUESTION 12 Of the following which two exploration methods are the most useful to locate a mineral sand deposit? (A) seismic and magnetic surveys (B) gravitational and seismic surveys (C) magnetic and gravitational surveys (D) borehole logging and gravitational surveys
QUESTION 13 The table below shows an extract from a geochemical exploration dataset showing the concentration of gold in grams per tonne (g/t) for four drillhole samples. : . . . 0.89 4.1 1] 5.5 | 1.13 l 13 7.6 | 0.62 4.8 | 150 | 115 | 0.78 Assuming it is economically viable to mine for gold at Au > 10 g/t which drillholes are more viable using an open-cut process? (A) U28 and U33 (B) U31 and U33 (C) U31 and U34 (D) U33 and U34 nA} BR] w]n ae eo 8 9
QUESTION 14 Which is the most important process for ensuring sustainable ground water use in a regional catchment area? (A) to maintain water usage at levels below annual net recharge volumes (B) to minimise effect of water salinity on river ecosystems (C) to meet environmental demands of the catchment area (D) to meet demands of urban development
QUESTION 15 A scientific agency conducted a study to evaluate the efficiency of wind and hydroelectric renewable energy sources at different locations. Name plate capacity Average annual (MW) production (MW-h) Hydro at location X 209.3 875 000 Energy Wind at location X 2080 4 200 000 Hydro at location Y 189.4 905 000 Wind at location Y 1980 4 050 000 Compare the efficiency of wind and hydroelectric renewable energy sources in the table above to determine the most efficient renewable energy system. (A) hydro at location X (B) wind at location X (C) hydro at location Y (D) wind at location Y
QUESTION 20 Ecosystem services can be divided into groups based on their function. Which of the following groups of functions best describes supporting services in an ecosystem? (A) aesthetic cultural educational and recreational (B) disease regulation climate regulation and carbon sequestration (C) aesthetic nutrient and water cycling provisioning of food and water (D) nutrient and water cycling soil formation air and water purification
QUESTION 23 (8 marks) a) Describe why fish stock biota is considered a renewable resource. [1 mark] b) Using Stimulus 4 in the stimulus book identify the trend in global wild caught seafood production from 1990 to 2020. [1 mark] c) Using Stimulus 4 contrast the trends for wild caught seafood aquaculture production and per capita consumption from 1950 to 2020. Give reasons for differences between the trends for each. [6 marks]
QUESTION 25 (7 marks) a) Explain how the following mineral resources are formed. e aluminium [2 marks] e mineral sands [2 marks] b) Explain how the location of a gold deposit is usually related to its geological setting. [3 marks]
QUESTION 1 (5 marks) The figure below shows a wireline log that was used to identify potential coal seams. a) Annotate the figure to identify the top of each coal seam. Justify your annotations. [3 marks] Density (g/cm?) 1.7 2.2 2.7 3.2 b) Determine the thickness of a coal seam indicated on the previous page. Write your response in the box below and round your answer to one decimal place. Show your working. [2 marks] Thickness of coal seam =
QUESTION 3 (2 marks) Explain two ways that human activity can cause dryland salinity.
QUESTION 4 (9 marks) a) Using an example explain the concept of an ecological footprint. [3 marks] b) Using a case study discuss positive and negative human influences on the sustainability of ecosystems at local regional and global scales. [6 marks] Case study:
QUESTION 7 (5 marks) Two farmers received data that indicated that their properties were affected by salinity. Both farmers implemented salinity mitigation measures. Farmer A fenced off the area affected by salinity and sowed a mixture of tall grasses. Farmer B replanted a previously wooded hill area. Compare the two methods that the farmers used to combat their salinity problems and predict a probable outcome for each method.
QUESTION 8 (15 marks) Interpret the evidence in Stimulus 4 and Stimulus 5 in the stimulus book to draw a conclusion about the effectiveness of the salt interception scheme for sustaining the natural ecosystem that occurs along the Murray—Darling basin river system. Justify your conclusion.
QUESTION 10 Which anthropogenic factor would most likely affect the sustainable population of native biota? (A) changes to average seasonal rainfall (B) introduction of a new species for biological control (C) increased salinity in rivers through saltwater intrusion (D) planting of grass strips in agricultural systems to reduce erosion
QUESTION 7 (11 marks) This question refers to Stimulus 5—8 in the stimulus book. In January 2020 it was claimed that ‘management of the Namoi River catchment has had a negative impact on the availability and quality of fresh water in local ecosystems’. Water restrictions for general use in towns in the catchment area were implemented in December 2019 to increase the availability and quality of fresh water for local ecosystems. a) Draw aconclusion about whether the catchment has been managed effectively. Provide two reasons to support your conclusion. [3 marks] b) Discuss the claim made about the management of the catchment by using the stimulus to identify three possible causes and associated impacts on the local ecosystem. Propose and justify a solution to address the impacts. [8 marks]
QUESTION 4 The graph below shows the harvest volume from world fisheries and aquaculture production. Pe Me aM TERAYURDANURRENENGEN ANDOU AHOED ENGEOENOOO EDOO CHONG THONG OOERO HOEDY AAAS FURENVAMON COREY UOUEN PONE ARRON AEOORATOOOONOOD ETOO ETON AALS FURAN DOAN VODA VERON TOROUAORENERGON ONHODENEOD DOD ONEN SEER PURONVONONOVOUUOUEN TOOVOCHON ANGER OOOOUONOED ENOO ETON ARES! DOVANTOVAVACUEN MOAN ACHORANOOOONOOD ETOED TOU ETON as HOAY CTL EENOTAEOAO EOE CHOU EEE AOAAN ET QUENCY CONEY AERO AOE HOY CE A pe eA TT KAUEUEVEGGOACOUU TEE AAAAU UAE emcee TTT pce vO nL TT TTT pum — oowTrT Ones SOUUO} JO SUOII|IW Ul JSSATeY JO BWIN|O/A cLO? OTOZ L007 S007 cOO07 0002 L66T S66T c66T O66T L861 S86T C86T O86T LL6T SZ6T cLET OZL6T S96T c96T O96T LS6T SS6T cS6T OS6T Year © Aquaculture production gw Wild harvest Which of the following options best represents the average annual increase in aquaculture production from 1970 to 2012? (A) 2.2 million tonnes (B) (C) 1.5 million tonnes 1.3 million tonnes (D) 0.8 million tonnes
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QUESTION 14 Algal blooms caused by nutrient run-off impact long-term water quality by decreasing (A) acidity. (B) turbidity. (C) light availability. (D) dissolved oxygen.
QUESTION 7 Determine when a PM ; concentration of 50 ug/m® could be recorded. (A) winter: 60% relative humidity (B) winter: 90% relative humidity (C) summer: 60% relative humidity (D) summer: 90% relative humidity
Difficulty: C
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Paper 1
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2023
QUESTION 7 An experiment compared the energy output of a model wind turbine using four different blade shapes. Blade First trial Second trial Third trial Mean (kW h) (kW h) (kW h) (kW h) a 298 293 356 316 271 304 357 304 179 118 145 Which blade produced the most consistent supply of energy? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
QUESTION 3 (6 marks) Use Stimulus | in the stimulus book to draw a conclusion about the effectiveness of the sulfur dioxide management program. Justify your conclusion using three pieces of evidence. Identify two limitations in the data.
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