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QUESTION 1 Identify the most likely reason for volcanoes being located down the western side of South America on the map. South America Pacific Ocean Atlantic Ocean Key A volcano ex plate boundary (A) two tectonic plates diverging resulting in exposing the asthenosphere (B) two tectonic plates colliding causing the Earth to crack along the continental coast (C) the heavier oceanic plate subducting under the lighter continental plate resulting in a volcanic arc forming along the continental coast (D) the continental plate cracking due to pressure and moving under the oceanic plate making the continent grow larger through the formation of volcanoes
QUESTION 2 As a method of resource extraction stoping would be best used for (A) an evenly distributed low concentration gold deposit at a depth of 50 to 500 m. (B) base metals in a massive deposit at a depth greater than 500 m. (C) apetroleum reservoir in an anticlinal trap at 500 m depth. (D) high concentration mineral sand deposits at 500 m depth.
QUESTION 3 In which two locations would the process of fracking occur? (A) Land Ill (B) LandIV (C) Mand Ill (D) IV and VI
Difficulty: C
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Paper 1
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2020
QUESTION 4 Fossils of aquatic organisms containing higher-than-average levels of oxygen-18 isotopes indicate that the climate was once cooler than it is today because (A) oxygen-18 isotopes concentrate at lower temperatures. (B) oxygen-16 isotopes concentrate at lower temperatures. (C) oxygen-18 isotopes evaporate readily at lower temperatures. (D) oxygen-16 isotopes evaporate readily at lower temperatures.
QUESTION 5 Which of the following describes how a tsunami is formed? (A) (B) (C) (D) A series of large waves 1s produced at a divergent boundary. A slow build-up of pressure in the lithosphere results in the release of molten rock. Pressure 1s released when tectonic plates meet at a continental transform boundary. A disturbance in the Earth’s oceanic crust causes the release of a large amount of energy in the hydrosphere.
QUESTION 6 Iron is most often formed within higher concentration bands because (A) (B) (C) (D) high rainfall leads to the concentration of iron ore due to leaching. higher porosity reservoir rocks allow high concentrations of iron ore to precipitate under a cap rock. zones within convergent plate boundaries cause high-pressure mineral assemblages to form in distinct zones. the high density of iron leads to it being concentrated in the deeper parts of channels found within sedimentary basins.
QUESTION 7 What is the minimum requirement for maintaining a sustainable flow of water in a river system? (A) maintaining the level of water extraction below annual recharge (B) _ stabilising the riparian vegetation along the river system (C) constructing flood levees to control water flow (D) maintaining biodiversity in the river ecosystem
QUESTION 8 The table shows the effect of average maximum air temperatures during January on average crop yields for two varieties of two crops. January average Average crop yield (t/ha) ° Predict which variety of which crop is most likely to be productive and adapt to increasing average air temperature. (A) Crop X Variety | (B) Crop X Variety 2 (C) Crop Y Variety 1 (D) Crop Y Variety 2
QUESTION 9 In a regional river system which of the following 1s most likely to increase the risk of salinity? (A) lower water extraction from the river system (B) increased nutrient run-off from pastures (C) an algal bloom in the river system (D) long periods of drought
QUESTION 10 Which of the following is an example of an ecosystem-supporting service? (A) carbon sequestration (B) provisioning of food and water (C) cycling and purification of water (D) providing a habitat for plants and animals
QUESTION 11 This graph shows recorded Southern Oscillation Index (SOI) values for Australia from 2000 to 2018. 30 . j) AD. ay [M ayy “ao TTA! WP —20 —30 2000 2002 2004 2006 2008 2010 2012 2014 2016 2018 Year A survey of an area in eastern Australia showed that there was an increase in invasive plant species lower native vegetation cover shallow soil depth and signs of erosion. During which year was this survey most likely taken? (A) 2009 (B) 2011 (C) 2013 (D) 2016
QUESTION 12 Which of the following best describes the ore separation process used in this flotation machine? Ore slurry input at Air pumped in at Tailings exit at Il Il
QUESTION 14 These figures show different methods of sampling that can be used to measure an unknown variable. Which scenario would create the most effective program to monitor changes in soil pH associated with groundwater movement from a mining operation moving away from the central sector? (A) grid sampling with bulking (B) spatially dense sampling (C) targeted sampling with bulking (D) frequent sampling at a few representative monitoring plots
Difficulty: A
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Paper 1
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2020
QUESTION 15 siltstone Q What is the most likely type of mineral resource to be found at location A? (A) banded iron ore (B) mineral sands (C) bauxite (D) gold
QUESTION 16 (6 marks) a) Use Stimulus | in the stimulus book to identify which location flood mitigation efforts should be focused on. Justify your decision using three pieces of evidence from the stimulus. [4 marks] b) Identify a long-term flood mitigation strategy that could be implemented to decrease the flood risk at this location. Explain how this mitigation strategy would reduce the risk of flooding. [2 marks]
QUESTION 17 (5 marks) Explain how land clearing can influence climate change. Identify three subsequent impacts on Earth’s biosphere.
QUESTION 18 (5 marks) This question refers to Stimulus 2 and 3 in the stimulus book. A mine that opened in 2014 was surrounded by semi-open woodland. As part of the mine’s environmental plan soil pH was monitored at four sites around the mine. The distribution of three native grass species a woody weed species and an annual weed species was also monitored and recorded. a) Draw aconclusion about which plant species were negatively affected by the operation of the mine. Use data from the stimulus to support your response. [2 marks] b) Draw aconclusion about which monitoring site the data in Stimulus 3 was recorded at. Justify your conclusion using evidence from Stimulus 2 and 3. [3 marks]
QUESTION 19 (6 marks) This question refers to Stimulus 4 in the stimulus book. a) Contrast the data to draw a conclusion about the potential to maintain a sustainable ecological footprint by using hydroponic systems to grow agricultural crops instead of conventional methods. b) Determine a method to reduce the ecological footprint associated with using hydroponic systems for agricultural production. Describe your reasoning. [4 marks] [2 marks]
QUESTION 20 (13 marks) This question refers to Stimulus 5 6 and 7 in the stimulus book. a) Use Stimulus 5 to contrast the percentage change in the commercial catch of blue swimmer crabs and spanner crabs between 2008 and 2017. [5 marks] b) Use Stimulus 5-7 to draw conclusions about the long-term sustainability of each crab species as commercial native biota. Justify your conclusions using two pieces of evidence for each crab species from any of the stimulus. [6 marks] c) Use Stimulus 6 and 7 to explain two ways to improve the sustainability of either crab species. [2 marks]
QUESTION 1 (9 marks) a) Identify an introduced animal or plant species and explain two reasons why this species is classified as a pest. [3 marks] Introduced species: b) Using a case study about an anthropogenic activity other than introducing a pest species discuss three positive and three negative human influences on the sustainability of an ecosystem on a local scale. [6 marks] Anthropogenic activity:
QUESTION 2 (5 marks) This question refers to Stimulus | in the stimulus book. a) Identify the climatic event that occurred between April 2010 and April 2011. Explain your reasoning. [2 marks] b) Identify and explain the cause of the pattern in the SOI values between April 2011 and January 2012. [3 marks]
QUESTION 4 (6 marks) This question refers to Stimulus 3 in the stimulus book. a) Explain how turbidity ponds are used. [2 marks] b) Draw aconclusion about the effectiveness of the turbidity management strategy at the mine site. Justify your conclusion. [4 marks]
QUESTION 5 (12 marks) a) Describe the process of eutrophication. Using the data in Stimulus 4 in the stimulus book explain why eutrophication would occur in the creek. Infer where this process is likely to have taken place providing two reasons to support your inference. [9 marks] b) To mitigate the potential effects of the sewage water was released from a dam located further upstream. Propose three ways that this release would improve water quality. [3 marks]
QUESTION 6 (15 marks) This question refers to Stimulus 5 and 6 in the stimulus book. a) Justify the decision of the Puerto Rican government to move the Department of Civil Defense to Ponce instead of Mayagiiez referring to both stimulus to support your response. [S marks] b) Identify appropriate design considerations necessary to mitigate the effect of natural hazards on a new Department of Civil Defense building in Ponce. [7 marks]
QUESTION 1 Which properties would the fraction labelled X on the diagram exhibit? (A) high viscosity and low volatility (B) low volatility and a low boiling point (C) high flammability and high volatility (D) low flammability and a high boiling point
QUESTION 2 Economical gold-bearing layers are most likely located in (A) asedimentary sequence with an organic-rich source rock. (B) fractures and joints surrounding a massive granite body. (C) joint planes in an exhalative massive sulfide complex. (D) an alluvial deposit in an igneous granite complex.
QUESTION 3 A rift valley is formed by the interactions of (A) an oceanic plate subducting beneath a continental plate. (B) acontinental plate subducting beneath an oceanic plate. (C) two divergent continental plates. (D) two convergent oceanic plates.
QUESTION 4 Which renewable energy source includes an energy transformation that relies on pressurised gas to drive turbines? (A) geothermal (B) fossil fuels (C) nuclear (D) solar
QUESTION 5 Mineral sands deposits are formed (A) in higher porosity reservoir rocks allowing greater concentrations of ore minerals to precipitate under a cap rock. (B) by the weathering of mineral-rich rocks and subsequent dissolution of minerals into oceans and streams. (C) by the physical concentration of eroded mineral grains into placer deposits due to their specific gravity. (D) in convergent plate boundaries causing high-pressure mineral assemblages to form in distinct zones.
QUESTION 6 The graph shows new hardwood and softwood plantations and the removal of trees in a designated region between 2007 and 2015. The region holds pre-2007 plantation reserves of 94 000 ha for hardwood and 89 000 ha for softwood. 90 80 Key 70 || new softwood plantations new hardwood plantations || softwood removal 60 50 40 hardwood removal 30 Area (’000 ha) N So INN LLL VZZZZ) ZZZZZI [+ + | + 2007 2008 2009 2010 2011 2012 2013 2014 2015 Year Calculate the approximate hardwood plantations remaining at the end of 2013. (A) 52000 ha (B) 93000ha (C) 146000 ha (D) 238000 ha
QUESTION 8 Which abiotic factor naturally reduces the growth of algal blooms in the waters of temperate lakes? (A) increasing fish populations (B) increasing nutrient levels (C) decreasing temperature (D) decreasing salinity
QUESTION 9 The principles of ecologically sustainable development support (A) extracting water from a river system 1f environmental flows are maintained. (B) using native forests and hardwood plantations to produce wood products. (C) using steel rather than timber in all new housing developments. (D) importing fish from overseas to conserve local fish stocks.
QUESTION 10 Which anthropogenic factor would most likely affect the sustainable population of native biota? (A) (B) (C) (D) changes to average seasonal rainfall introduction of a new species for biological control increased salinity in rivers through saltwater intrusion planting of grass strips in agricultural systems to reduce erosion
QUESTION 11 The table shows primary environmental data collected and used to make decisions about Fire Danger Index (FDI) values. Location Days since Maximum Relative Wind speed Fuel load Fire Danger last rainfall average humidity (km/h) and | (tonne/ha) Index (FDI) daytime (%) direction temperature According to this data which environmental factors had the greatest influence on determining the Fire Danger Index values? (A) temperature and fuel load (B) rainfall and wind speed (C) humidity and fuel load (D) rainfall and humidity
QUESTION 13 In which two locations would you most likely find oil and water respectively? Locations
QUESTION 14 Hyperspectral imaging is mostly used in mineral and energy resource exploration to (A) (B) (C) (D) detect changes in the magnetic fields surrounding ore bodies at depth. identify gravitational anomalies associated with certain mineral assemblages. outline water courses associated with fractures and joint patterns in igneous complexes. detect changes in vegetation growing in different soil types that are affected by the underlying geochemistry.
QUESTION 15 Volcanic ejecta can affect global climate. Following a large-scale eruption sulfur dioxide aerosols 1n the atmosphere convert to sulfuric acid in the stratosphere. This results in (A) the Earth’s lower atmosphere cooling. (B) adecrease in reflection of solar radiation. (C) adecrease in atmospheric carbon dioxide. (D) the Earth’s atmosphere warming due to acid rain.
QUESTION 16 (11 marks) a) b) c) Explain two characteristics of a tropical cyclone that are observable using meteorological data. Determine which of the national parks in Stimulus 1 was the location of Dataset | in Stimulus 3. Provide evidence from Stimulus 1 2 and 3 to support your response. Predict which species is likely to quickly return to pre-cyclone numbers. Justify your response by contrasting two species using data from Stimulus 3. [4 marks] [4 marks] [3 marks]
QUESTION 17 (5 marks) a) b) Identify which years on the Southern Oscillation Index (SOI) graph in Stimulus 4 in the stimulus book represent the climatic conditions at X from Stimulus 5 in the stimulus book. Justify your response using evidence from the graph. Identify which years in Stimulus 4 were likely to have the largest recharge of natural river systems in the location marked by X in Stimulus 5. Explain your reasoning. [3 marks] [2 marks]
QUESTION 18 (3 marks) During periods in the geological timeline marine shells containing high levels of 80 isotope became fossilised. Use Stimulus 6 in the stimulus book to draw a conclusion about the average annual air temperature when fossilisation occurred. Provide two pieces of evidence to justify your conclusion.
QUESTION 19 (4 marks) Describe two geochemical techniques used in mineral exploration.
QUESTION 20 (6 marks) Identify two possible environmental risks that could be noted in an environmental impact assessment (EIA) for a new gold mine. Propose a strategy to mitigate each risk and explain the principle behind each Strategy. Risk: Strategy: Principle behind strategy: Risk: Strategy: Principle behind strategy:
QUESTION 21 (3 marks) Use Stimulus 7 in the stimulus book to determine the depth and thickness of the coal seam/s. Justify your response using evidence from the stimulus.
QUESTION 22 (7 marks) Explain how clearing a mangrove ecosystem would affect the net contribution of greenhouse gases for the area being cleared. In your response identify gas exchanges in plants and soil substrates.
QUESTION 23 (6 marks) A new city is being built in an area prone to earthquakes and tsunamis. Consider potential Earth hazards at this location and identify three mitigation strategies. Provide an explanation to support each strategy.
QUESTION 1 (6 marks) Describe each separation process and identify an ore used and the mineral extracted. a) Milling [3 marks] b) Sluicing [3 marks]
QUESTION 2 (4 marks) Identify one way that coal mining can have an environmental impact on the biosphere and hydrosphere and propose a method for monitoring each impact. a) Biosphere [2 marks] b) Hydrosphere [2 marks]
QUESTION 3 (6 marks) Use Stimulus | in the stimulus book to draw a conclusion about the effectiveness of the sulfur dioxide management program. Justify your conclusion using three pieces of evidence. Identify two limitations in the data.
QUESTION 5 (10 marks) a) b) Use Stimulus 3 and 4 in the stimulus book to infer the impacts that changes in climatic conditions will have on crop productivity for Site A and Site B. Justify each inference with one piece of evidence from each stimulus. For each site propose a strategy that could be used to protect or enhance agricultural production. Justify your proposals using data from the stimulus. [6 marks] [4 marks]
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QUESTION 7 (11 marks) This question refers to Stimulus 5—8 in the stimulus book. In January 2020 it was claimed that ‘management of the Namoi River catchment has had a negative impact on the availability and quality of fresh water in local ecosystems’. Water restrictions for general use in towns in the catchment area were implemented in December 2019 to increase the availability and quality of fresh water for local ecosystems. a) Draw aconclusion about whether the catchment has been managed effectively. Provide two reasons to support your conclusion. [3 marks] b) Discuss the claim made about the management of the catchment by using the stimulus to identify three possible causes and associated impacts on the local ecosystem. Propose and justify a solution to address the impacts. [8 marks]
QUESTION 1 The cross-section of land shows the layer profile and the location of an oil and gas reserve. a 8 fe QO 16g 8 9 ii To Ore Pe tte: tO So tt ee ae - are) OO weg . 0 O°O ws 2 0 . we oo °. - . a * . . ‘os . . 7 . :- : oO 8770. 7 ope 8 go 88 8 go. O80 Oe . 7 858 50m I ED OES DE ee’ 5 g¢ Je .ths 3.6 Porous sandstone -:..¢:. fot soto eg Boe tL peek >. ete lo o.oo”. a se Sf es ae nr seg. Oo O°. seg Je O° “9 eo : OP ce: ret 2 re ou . fo o. BP Oe Ol ge Oe eel gs Op 8 i oo eh . . --. Porous sandstone oo o. ob we : o- 9.07 tote 0+ 9.07. L: toe! 4° Non-porous cap rock Oil and gas rich shale Where is the most suitable location to extract crude oil? (A) I (B) I (C) Il (D) IV
QUESTION 2 Stoping is the process of extracting an ore or mineral (A) found close to the Earth’s surface. (B) from the bottom of an artificial pond. (C) from an underground mine leaving behind an open space. (D) across a horizontal plane creating arrays with natural supporting columns.
QUESTION 3 In which geological setting are you least likely to find volcanos? (A) intraplate hotspots (B) divergent boundaries (C) transform boundaries (D) convergent boundaries
QUESTION 4 The amount of incoming solar radiation as measured on the Earth’s surface is least affected by the (A) axial tilt of Earth relative to the sun. (B) shape of Earth’s orbit around the sun. (C) activity of sunspots on the sun’s surface. (D) gradual shift in the orientation of Earth’s axis of rotation.
QUESTION 5 Land clearing can reduce the frequency magnitude and intensity of (A) floods. (B) droughts. (C) bushfires. (D) landslides.
QUESTION 6 Which option best describes the effect of dam provisioning? Water availability downstream Water quality of dam ee (a) |) ow | tw
QUESTION 7 The graph shows total global carbon dioxide (GtCO ) emissions from burning fossil fuels and deforestation. 80 70 60 50 40 30 20 Global CO emissions (GtCO emissions) 10 0 SG & D HM GD OG - HF OH DB GHG WO FB HD © CS SSS MQ SG VV GON GV os 8 \y os \) S » os \) \N) a yr of Vy Year If the trend since 2000 continues GtCO emissions in 2030 will be approximately (A) 72 (B) 62 (C) 51 (D) 43
QUESTION 8 The most likely trigger for a large-scale tsunami is (A) iceberg calving. (B) a tropical cyclone. (C) asubmarine landslide. (D) an undersea volcanic eruption. QUESTIONS 9-10 These questions refer to the study by Sil et al. (2017) of carbon sequestration and carbon pools in a large area of mixed land use between 1990 and 2020. — ON ) — iN on) — N fon) Carbon sequestration rate (Mg C ha ! yr!) S oo So 0.60 0.40 0.20 Total Above-ground Below-ground Soil organic Detrital organic biomass biomass carbon matter (litter) Key LJ Mixed land use Abandoned agricultural Forest Shrubland 1990-2006 land 2007-2020 2007-2020 2007-2020
QUESTION 9 It can be inferred from the graph that (A) (B) (C) (D) the amount of forest has increased since 2006. abandoned agricultural land increased the amount of forest. shrubland litter was the least effective at converting its carbon into below-ground biomass. the carbon sequestration rate from highest to lowest is soil above-ground biomass below-ground biomass and litter. QUESTIONS 9-10 These questions refer to the study by Sil et al. (2017) of carbon sequestration and carbon pools in a large area of mixed land use between 1990 and 2020. — — KR A Go & — N on) 1.00 Carbon sequestration rate (Mg C ha ! yr ') So o2) jo) 0.60 0.40 0.20 0.00 Total Above-ground Below-ground Soil organic Detrital organic biomass biomass carbon matter (litter) Key LJ Mixed land use Abandoned agricultural i Forest Shrubland 1990-2006 land 2007-2020 2007-2020 2007-2020
QUESTION 10 What percentage of carbon sequestration does shrubland above-ground biomass contribute to shrubland’s total carbon sequestration rate? (A) 0.18% (B) 3.7% (C) 9.0% (D) 18.0%
QUESTION 11 Which substrate has the highest run-off rate during a flood event? (A) silt (B) clay (C) sand (D) loam
QUESTION 12 The graph shows a yield curve for fishing. Increasing catch per year —» Increasing fishing effort —» Aboriginal peoples’ and Torres Strait Islander peoples’ traditional harvest is best represented by (A) I. (B) IL. (C) Il. (D) IV.
QUESTION 13 A farmer has land affected by high salinity. Which solution would have the most impact on reducing it? (A) pump deep groundwater out (B) plant shallow-rooted crops (C) reduce surface drainage (D) initiate deep tillage
QUESTION 14 Fracking causes gas to be released after (A) drilling into rock and exposing layers to intense heat. (B) injecting water sand and chemicals into rock layers. (C) injecting hot water into soft shale reserves. (D) drilling into subsurface gas reserves.
QUESTION 15 The table shows the abundance of benthic foraminifera species recorded at four sites after a major oceanic oil spill. Species Pre-spill average Distance from oil spill (km) (% abundance + % error) 2 fo 100 ~ % abundance ee ee ee se ee ee ee ee Which species have definitely been affected by the oil spill? (A) land3 (B) 3and5 (C) 1 3 and 5 (D) 1 2 3 4 and 5
QUESTION 16 (6 marks) The diagram shows a surface geological map of a region where a mine to extract ilmenite rutile leucoxene and zircon is proposed. 31.0°S Key Hi Quaternary dunes Quaternary deposits 31.1°S | | [J Cenozoic sand plain Mi Cenozoic duricrust Cretaceous deposits 31.2°S8 4 Proposed mine 31.3°S 31.4°S 31.5°S LHS5.6°E WS.7°E LIS.8°E LIS.9°E 116.0°E a) Predict the viability of the proposed mine site based on the geological setting. Justify your prediction. [2 marks] b) Identify a direct sampling technique that could verify the quality of the deposit and explain why this technique would be suitable. [2 marks] c) Identify a suitable extraction method. Justify your response. [2 marks]
QUESTION 17 (5 marks) The map shows tectonic plates in the Western Pacific region. \ New Caledonia Cd 2 New Hebrides Plate Kermadec Plate Australian Plate xX South Pacific Ocean WI New Zealand Key ' Pacific island chain d a) Identify the plate denoted by X. [1 mark] b) Describe the type of plate boundary interaction between the Kermadec Plate and X. [1 mark] c) Identify the reasons tsunamis are likely to occur in the Pacific island chain. Explain why tsunamis are a significant hazard for the region. [3 marks]
QUESTION 18 (6 marks) The graph shows the rate of carbon dioxide emissions and absorption between 1920 and 2020. Global CO (Gt) a) b) 50 40 30 20 10 0 1920 1930 1940 1950 1960 1970 1980 1990 2000 2010 2020 Year Key — Emissions ---- Absorption Explain the net effect of the trends in carbon dioxide emissions shown by the graph. [2 marks] Suggest a likely cause of the trends identified in Question 18a). Explain the implications of the trends for the chemical composition of the atmosphere and the climate. Show your reasoning. [4 marks]
QUESTION 19 (5 marks) A study was conducted when a sudden algal bloom was discovered in a waterway that runs adjacent to a dairy paddock. Fertiliser had been applied to the paddock several weeks before. Dissolved oxygen pH and turbidity were measured at various distances from the source of the waterway. — Value So FPF NO W BN Any ww WO Oo CW F—>r'rklkhe SW FF SS Ww je>hh Y Uj Uj 7 U; SSL > e SG 'r>e>e. 0 40 60 8 Distance from water source (m) fo) No om) — S&S jo) Key [Dissolved oxygen (ppm) pH WW! Turbidity (NTU) Draw a conclusion about possible anthropogenic causes of the algal bloom. Show your reasoning referring to each variable measured in the graph.
QUESTION 20 (5 marks) The map models changes in winter sea surface temperature from 2006 to 2100. 30.0°S 35.0°S Melbourne 40.0°S 45.0°S / _\ 140.0° E 150.0° E 160.0° E a) Explain a likely change in fisheries distribution and sustainability in area A. b) Identify a mitigation strategy for the change identified in Question 20a) that could be implemented by the Australian government. c) Identify a mitigation strategy for the change identified in Question 20a) that could be implemented by local fisheries. Temperature change (°C) [3 marks] [1 mark] [1 mark]
QUESTION 1 (3 marks) This question refers to Stimulus | in the stimulus book. a) Determine the approximate maximum sustainable yield (MSY) for the fish population. [1 mark] b) It is expected that the carrying capacity of the fishery will decline due to climate change. If the fishery continues to be harvested at the MSY predict the future trend in the graph and the likely outcome. [2 marks]
QUESTION 2 (5 marks) This question refers to Stimulus 2 in the stimulus book. a) Contrast the climatic conditions that would be expected for the continental configurations in Map A and Map B. Show your reasoning using three pieces of evidence from the maps. [3 marks] The opening of the Drake Passage (see Map C) allowed the formation of a very large current that circles Antarctica known as the Antarctic Circumpolar Current. b) Explain expected differences in Antarctica’s climate between Map B and Map C. [2 marks]
QUESTION 3 (9 marks) a) Identify how bushfires can alter the characteristics of the biosphere and soil layer of a forest environment. Parts b) and c) refer to Stimulus 3 in the stimulus book. b) Identify when a bushfire is likely to have occurred. Show your reasoning using data from the graph. c) Infer how the run-off coefficient will evolve after May 2021 in the short term and the long term. Justify your conclusion. [2 marks] [3 marks] [4 marks]
QUESTION 4 (10 marks) This question refers to Stimulus 4 in the stimulus book. a) b) c) d) General circulation models (GCMs) solve fluid equations separately for atmosphere and ocean components. Identify another Earth system component necessary to support these models. Identify the event that occurred around 1991 and 1992 in the equatorial Pacific Ocean and explain its effect on trade winds air pressure and ocean temperature during that period. Draw a conclusion about the validity of the GCM’s representation of El Nifio and La Nina. Justify your conclusion with reference to amplitude and periodicity. Recent climate models predict that extreme El Nifo Southern Oscillation (ENSO) events will approximately double in frequency due to climate change. Explain two ways governments might use this prediction in their decision-making. [1 mark] [4 marks] [3 marks] [2 marks]
QUESTION 5 (6 marks) a) Explain how Antarctic ice cores can provide insight into global temperature changes. [4 marks] b) Explain two limitations of using Antarctic ice core analysis as evidence of past global climate change. [2 marks]
QUESTION 6 (14 marks) This question refers to Stimulus 5 in the stimulus book. a) Determine a site for a new coal mine in the area. Justify the location of the mine using three pieces of evidence and a method of extraction. [6 marks] b) Describe the impact of the mine on the hydrosphere geosphere biosphere and atmosphere and their associated environmental monitoring strategies. [8 marks]
QUESTION 1 Sluicing separates metallic resources based on (A) solubility. (B) melting point. (C) specific gravity. (D) hydrophobic properties.
QUESTION 2 Where is the most likely location for gold-bearing quartz reefs? (A) asedimentary sequence with an organic-rich source rock (B) fractures and joints surrounding a massive granite body (C) joint planes in an exhalative massive sulphide complex (D) an alluvial deposit in an igneous granite complex
QUESTION 3 The operational time of a mineral sands quarry is limited because mineral sands (A) are replenished within a human lifespan. (B) have a greater deposition rate than extraction rate. (C) are formed from source rock through slow geological processes. (D) are formed from the decomposition of plants and animals from millions of years ago.
QUESTION 4 Carbon sequestration is an example of which ecosystem service? (A) cultural (B) regulating (C) supporting (D) provisioning
QUESTION 5 A mature tropical cyclone formed off the west coast of Australia and was given a female name starting with J. A short time later another tropical cyclone formed off the east coast of Australia. The correct name for this cyclone would be (A) a female name beginning with K. (B) a female name beginning with J. (C) amale name beginning with K. (D) amale name beginning with J.
QUESTION 6 Urbanisation can increase the magnitude of floods by reducing (A) above-ground water storage capacity. (B) impermeable surface area. (C) evapotranspiration. (D) run-off.
QUESTION 8 Which inference is supported by the graphs? (A) The ideal humidity level to reduce particulate matter is 80%. (B) Humidity has the most impact on particulate matter during summer. (C) Increased humidity results in a decrease in particulate matter concentration. (D) Higher concentrations of particulate matter are more resistant to changes in humidity.
Difficulty: B
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Paper 1
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2023
QUESTION 9 A geological map of India is shown. COT Oe eee 8 Se hOhlUP Oe ween neeewee ween saaae Key 4 Recent and pleistocene (sedimentary) #2 Deccan Trap (igneous) §) Pre-Cambrian (metamorphic) MB Gondwana and Vindhyan (metamorphic) A viable location to explore for coal is (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
QUESTION 10 Sea ice extent is the area of ice that covers the Arctic and Antarctic Ocean at a given time. The graph shows Arctic and Antarctic sea ice extent anomalies and trends for 1980-2017. The most likely reason for the difference between Antarctic and Arctic extent changes since 1980 is (A) significant glacial melting. (B) decreasing salinity of the Arctic Ocean. (C) the presence of a continental crust beneath Antarctica. (D) a greater increase in northern hemisphere atmospheric temperatures.
Difficulty: C
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Paper 1
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2023
QUESTION 11 Flood events impact river systems by (A) redistributing sediment from upstream to downstream. (B) causing greater erosion on the inside of river bends. (C) permanently reducing upstream biodiversity. (D) reducing the quantity of debris downstream.
QUESTION 13 A topographical map of an island is shown. | Key @© Epicentre of recent earthquakes of magnitude 4 or greater The location with the highest risk of a tsunami is (A) I. (B) IL. (C) IU. (D) IV.
QUESTION 15 The best type of survey to identify underground petroleum is (A) seismic. (B) magnetic. (C) radioactive. (D) hyperspectral.
QUESTION 16 Geological and weather conditions for four locations are shown. Location | Tectonic Distance Average Average Average Elevation activity from coast | wind speed | annual sunshine | annual rainfall | above sea (km) (km/h) (hours) (mm) level (m) Moderate 1549 Moderate 1653 High 9 10 15.000 1322 2030 Compared to locations 1 3 and 4 location 2 is the most suitable location for which form of renewable energy? (A) solar (B) wind (C) geothermal (D) hydroelectric
QUESTION 17 The graph shows the volume of water in a local dam as a proportion of its capacity. 100 Xe) ro) ioe) om) I i) Volume (% capacity) as | 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016 2017 2018 2019 2020 2021 2022 Year The locality experienced a flooding event in 2013. The change in dam capacity between X and Y can be explained by (A) an overflow of the dam wall causing catastrophic dam failure. (B) arelease of environmental flow water from the dam. (C) asecondary flooding event. (D) further significant rainfall.
QUESTION 19 The best tests to monitor soil structure are (A) moisture and organic carbon. (B) volume and erosion pattern. (C) particle size and air space. (D) pH and salinity.
QUESTION 20 The graph shows spawning stock biomass and fishing pressure for North Sea cod between 1963 and 2002. The maximum sustainable yield measured by fishing pressure is (A) 1.15 (B) 0.95 (C) 0.75 (D) 0.55
Difficulty: C
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Paper 1
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2023
QUESTION 21 (7 marks) a) Describe the concept of an ecological footprint and state its unit of measure. [2 marks] b) Identify an example of a biological resource and four factors that would be considered when calculating its ecological footprint. [5 marks]
QUESTION 22 (9 marks) a) Identify three steps involved in separating iron metal from iron ore. [3 marks] b) Explain the separation processes identified in Question 22a) referring to the properties of iron or iron ore. [6 marks]
QUESTION 23 (14 marks) A business wants to install a renewable energy farm to partially offset its electricity consumption over the next 10 years. A summary of the two options is shown. Form of Initial cost | Annual cost Rate of energy Average working renewable energy production (kW) time (hours per day) a) b) Cc) Determine the average annual cost ($/year) annual energy production (kWh/year) and average energy cost (c/kWh) for i) solar. [3 marks] li) wind. [3 marks] Justify a conclusion about the most cost-effective form of renewable energy for the business. [2 marks] Explain a technological environmental and geographical factor that the business should consider when choosing a solar or wind farm. [6 marks]
QUESTION 1 (7 marks) Refer to Stimulus 1 in the stimulus book. a) Explain why groundwater is a renewable resource. [1 mark] b) Explain the change in recharge between 1970 and 2023. Support your response using evidence from the graphs. [3 marks] c) Make a justified prediction about the future sustainability of groundwater in the basin. [3 marks]
Difficulty: B
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Paper 2
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2023
QUESTION 2 (9 marks) Refer to Stimulus 2 in the stimulus book. a) Explain why volcanoes form in Iceland. In 2010 Eyjafjallajokull erupted with a volcanic explosivity index of 4 (0: non-explosive 8: mega-colossal). The ash clouds produced disrupted air travel in Iceland and nearby countries. b) Cc) d) Explain why there was no recorded reduction in global temperature associated with this eruption. Predict another effect of the ash clouds. Explain your reasoning. Explain a mitigation strategy Reykjavik could establish to reduce hazardous outcomes from a nearby volcanic eruption. [3 marks] [2 marks] [2 marks] [2 marks]
QUESTION 3 (16 marks) Refer to Stimulus 3 in the stimulus book. a) b) Cc) d) Determine whether the northern or southern basin is most likely to be experiencing drought. Support your response using evidence from the map. Explain how dams are distributed in the Murray—Darling Basin. Support your response with evidence from the map. Identify a physical and biological strategy to reduce the impact of a future drought in the Murray—Darling Basin. Explain your reasoning. Predict one impact of drought on a terrestrial ecosystem and one impact on an aquatic ecosystem in the Murray—Darling Basin. Explain your reasoning. [2 marks] [4 marks] [6 marks] [4 marks]
QUESTION 4 (9 marks) Refer to Stimulus 4 in the stimulus book. a) Identify the endpoint of the last glaciation period. b) Identify the relationship between the type of pollen and global temperature in the last 160 000 years. Support your response with evidence from the graphs. c) Explain one advantage of using pollen to indicate historical climate change. Support your response with evidence from the graphs. [1 mark] [6 marks] [2 marks]
QUESTION 5 (11 marks) a) Explain the effect of land clearing on the composition of Earth’s atmosphere. [4 marks] Refer to Stimulus 5 in the stimulus book. b) Predict the impact on the composition of the atmosphere if the global methane budget stays the same. [4 marks] c) Draw aconclusion about the significance of anthropogenic contributions to the methane budget and the effect on global temperatures. Explain your reasoning. [3 marks]
QUESTION 6 (18 marks) Refer to Stimulus 6 in the stimulus book. a) Determine the financial value of the sample for all metals recoverable at the optimal pH for iron extraction. Show your working. The mining company decides to minimise its costs by extracting only two metals. b) Determine an alternative pH to maximise the financial value of the sample for two recoverable metals. Show your working. c) Which pH should the company use to process the sample? Justify your response. [8 marks] [8 marks] [2 marks]
QUESTION 1 What type of volcano commonly occurs at a convergent plate boundary? (A) lava dome (B) composite (C) fissure (D) _ shield
QUESTION 2 A major sustainable component of seaweed fertiliser is brown algae. This is because depletion of this resource (A) is less than the rate of replenishment. (B) is greater than the rate of replenishment. (C) is less than the annual yield of the resource. (D) is greater than the supply of the natural resource.
QUESTION 3 During the last decade a dingo control program was implemented in the Granite Belt region to reduce loss of lambs. This resulted in an increase in the population of wallabies and feral cats and a decrease in the population of rat species. The program also resulted in a loss of native plant species. With this decrease in plant species the population of herbivore species decreased. A decision was made to stop the control program and erect dingo fencing around native parks to allow numbers to recover. Which of the following scenarios presents the most likely consequences of stopping the dingo control program? (A) dingo population increased wallaby population decreased flora unaffected (B) dingo population decreased wallaby population decreased flora unaffected (C) dingo population increased wallaby population unaffected flora unaffected (D) wallaby population decreased flora increased insects and bird populations increased
QUESTION 5 Which of the following options lists primary greenhouse gases that are produced both naturally and through anthropogenic activities? (A) (B) (C) (D) carbon dioxide methane hydrofluorocarbons chlorofluorocarbons water vapour ozone carbon monoxide chlorofluorocarbons ozone hydrofluorocarbons nitrous oxide carbon monoxide water vapour methane carbon dioxide nitrous oxide
QUESTION 6 The froth flotation process involves (A) creating bubbles to which wanted material adheres. (B) adding surfactants to achieve a hydrophilic surface charge. (C) aerating the slurry to create a froth that contains unwanted material. (D) adding a slurry of fine powder and water to allow clay particles to be separated.
QUESTION 8 The following diagram represents a cross-section from an area explored for coal. Soil: Alluvium Coal Shale Conglomerate Sandstone Limestone Which of the following extraction processes would be used to remove coal in the area between points X and Y on the diagram? (A) fracking (B) onshore drilling (C) open-cut mining (D) underground mining
QUESTION 9 Which of the following statements is correct? (A) Metallic resources are an example of a non-renewable resource. (B) Metallic and energy resources are always found in sedimentary rocks. (C) Metallic non-metallic and energy resources are sourced and extracted from minerals. (D) Metallic resources non-metallic resources and energy resources are malleable and ductile.
QUESTION 10 Which of the following geological locations would be most likely to contain a coal deposit? (A) adomed limestone outcrop (B) the outermost band of a contact metamorphic zone (C) asedimentary basin in which strata contain leaf fossils (D) a fault-bound stratigraphic trap containing marine fossils
QUESTION 11 The contour map below shows the distribution of mineral sands. The contours represent the percentage of oxides in the sand. The ore deposit is considered viable if the concentration of oxides is at least 10%. The most viable location to mine is (A) Location A. (B) Location B. (C) Location C. (D) Location D.
QUESTION 12 Of the following which two exploration methods are the most useful to locate a mineral sand deposit? (A) seismic and magnetic surveys (B) gravitational and seismic surveys (C) magnetic and gravitational surveys (D) borehole logging and gravitational surveys
QUESTION 13 The table below shows an extract from a geochemical exploration dataset showing the concentration of gold in grams per tonne (g/t) for four drillhole samples. : . . . 0.89 4.1 1] 5.5 | 1.13 l 13 7.6 | 0.62 4.8 | 150 | 115 | 0.78 Assuming it is economically viable to mine for gold at Au > 10 g/t which drillholes are more viable using an open-cut process? (A) U28 and U33 (B) U31 and U33 (C) U31 and U34 (D) U33 and U34 nA} BR] w]n ae eo 8 9
QUESTION 14 Which is the most important process for ensuring sustainable ground water use in a regional catchment area? (A) to maintain water usage at levels below annual net recharge volumes (B) to minimise effect of water salinity on river ecosystems (C) to meet environmental demands of the catchment area (D) to meet demands of urban development
QUESTION 15 A scientific agency conducted a study to evaluate the efficiency of wind and hydroelectric renewable energy sources at different locations. Name plate capacity Average annual (MW) production (MW-h) Hydro at location X 209.3 875 000 Energy Wind at location X 2080 4 200 000 Hydro at location Y 189.4 905 000 Wind at location Y 1980 4 050 000 Compare the efficiency of wind and hydroelectric renewable energy sources in the table above to determine the most efficient renewable energy system. (A) hydro at location X (B) wind at location X (C) hydro at location Y (D) wind at location Y
QUESTIONS 16 & 17 P-waves and S-waves travel through the Earth at different speeds. When the time between the arrival of P-waves and S-waves is one minute the epicentre is about 800 km away. The figure below is a flat grid representing an area on the surface of the Earth. 44 — ) ) 49 +++ |++ '— — a ee oe | 36 oot ooo oo kT Hundreds 24 | of kilometres 22 '>—————— > north of 0 | (0 0) 1g@}/-++ +++ +++ *M 12} Sp toto 0 0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 18 20 22 24 26 28 30 32 34 36 38 40 42 44 Hundreds of kilometres east of (0 0) QUESTION 16 An earthquake is recorded by a seismometer at M. The time difference between the arrival of the corresponding P-waves and S-waves at M is two minutes. Of the locations marked on the grid above which is the most likely location of the epicentre? (A) K (B) L (C) N (D) T
QUESTION 17 If the epicentre of a different earthquake is determined to be 3000 km from N 2400 km from T and 1800 km from L which of the following points would best represent the epicentre’s location? (A) M (B) Q (C) R (D) U
QUESTION 18 Tsunamis can result from (A) large volumes of water being displaced. (B) an oceanic plate colliding into a continental plate. (C) violent seafloor movement associated with earthquakes. (D) an explosive volcanic eruption causing an earthquake in a continental plate.
QUESTION 19 Which two types of plate boundary can be seen in the figure below? Subduction Mid-ocean Subduction ridge f—--N a Convection Convection y» (A) divergent and transform (B) divergent and convergent (C) descending and divergent (D) transform and convergent
QUESTION 20 Ecosystem services can be divided into groups based on their function. Which of the following groups of functions best describes supporting services in an ecosystem? (A) aesthetic cultural educational and recreational (B) disease regulation climate regulation and carbon sequestration (C) aesthetic nutrient and water cycling provisioning of food and water (D) nutrient and water cycling soil formation air and water purification
QUESTION 21 (10 marks) This question refers to Stimulus | in the stimulus book. a) Explain the three most likely causes of localised flooding in Oxapampa. b) Predict one positive and one negative impact that flood events will have on the local aquatic ecosystem situated along the Rio Chorobamba river. c) What are two ways that the impacts of the flood events could be mitigated for the buildings downstream of Oxapampa? d) Where is agricultural activity most likely to occur in and around Oxapampa? Provide two reasons to justify your response. [3 marks] [2 marks] [2 marks] [3 marks]
QUESTION 22 (5 marks) a) Using Stimulus 2 in the stimulus book identify the relationship between global temperatures and the concentration of heavy oxygen ('%O) in fossils. [1 mark] b) Using Stimulus 3 in the stimulus book explain why ice cores with oxygen isotopes can be used to provide evidence for climate change. [4 marks]
QUESTION 23 (8 marks) a) Describe why fish stock biota is considered a renewable resource. [1 mark] b) Using Stimulus 4 in the stimulus book identify the trend in global wild caught seafood production from 1990 to 2020. [1 mark] c) Using Stimulus 4 contrast the trends for wild caught seafood aquaculture production and per capita consumption from 1950 to 2020. Give reasons for differences between the trends for each. [6 marks]
QUESTION 24 (10 marks) a) Using two examples explain how agricultural activity can have a positive and negative impact on the concentration of particulate materials in the atmosphere. [4 marks] b) Discuss the influence of natural and anthropogenic processes on the production of atmospheric carbon dioxide over time using two examples of each. [6 marks]
QUESTION 25 (7 marks) a) Explain how the following mineral resources are formed. e aluminium [2 marks] e mineral sands [2 marks] b) Explain how the location of a gold deposit is usually related to its geological setting. [3 marks]
QUESTION 1 (5 marks) The figure below shows a wireline log that was used to identify potential coal seams. a) Annotate the figure to identify the top of each coal seam. Justify your annotations. [3 marks] Density (g/cm?) 1.7 2.2 2.7 3.2 b) Determine the thickness of a coal seam indicated on the previous page. Write your response in the box below and round your answer to one decimal place. Show your working. [2 marks] Thickness of coal seam =
QUESTION 2 (6 marks) a) Explain the effects on ecosystems and human life if ash and gaseous eruptions from a volcano do not escape the troposphere. [3 marks] b) The table below shows travel time and speed of a lahar eruption through an early warning system. ee ae Draw a conclusion about how effective an early warning system would be in mitigating the impacts of a lahar eruption. Give reasons for your conclusion. [3 marks]
QUESTION 3 (2 marks) Explain two ways that human activity can cause dryland salinity.
QUESTION 4 (9 marks) a) Using an example explain the concept of an ecological footprint. [3 marks] b) Using a case study discuss positive and negative human influences on the sustainability of ecosystems at local regional and global scales. [6 marks] Case study:
QUESTION 5 (8 marks) Use Stimulus 1 in the stimulus book to answer the following questions. a) | Compare the ability of birds and amphibians to adapt to increases in global temperature. . . a [3 marks] b) — Infer how similar increases in global temperatures would affect insect populations. [5 marks]
QUESTION 6 (15 marks) a) Identify which figure from Stimulus 2 in the stimulus book best represents data from La Nifia years. Justify your decision. b) Using Stimulus 3 in the stimulus book identify the trend in frequency of tropical cyclones across the Australian region from 1970 to 2016. c) Using data from Stimulus 3 draw a conclusion about the trend in severe tropical cyclones that have occurred between 1970 and 2016. Justify your conclusion. d) Using Stimulus 2 and Stimulus 3 predict the frequency and magnitude of drought and flooding events in Northern Queensland in the future. Justify your predictions. e) Predict the effect of future drought events on erosion vegetative distribution patterns and ecosystem regeneration. Justify your predictions. [2 marks] [1 mark] [3 marks] [3 marks] [6 marks]
QUESTION 7 (5 marks) Two farmers received data that indicated that their properties were affected by salinity. Both farmers implemented salinity mitigation measures. Farmer A fenced off the area affected by salinity and sowed a mixture of tall grasses. Farmer B replanted a previously wooded hill area. Compare the two methods that the farmers used to combat their salinity problems and predict a probable outcome for each method.
QUESTION 8 (15 marks) Interpret the evidence in Stimulus 4 and Stimulus 5 in the stimulus book to draw a conclusion about the effectiveness of the salt interception scheme for sustaining the natural ecosystem that occurs along the Murray—Darling basin river system. Justify your conclusion.
QUESTION 10 Which anthropogenic factor would most likely affect the sustainable population of native biota? (A) changes to average seasonal rainfall (B) introduction of a new species for biological control (C) increased salinity in rivers through saltwater intrusion (D) planting of grass strips in agricultural systems to reduce erosion
QUESTION 18 Elevation data for four volcanoes is shown. Elevation above mean (m) Mar 2022 3.1 4.6 3.7 2.6 Jun 2022 3.2 4.8 3.5 2.6 Dec 2022 Jan 2023 Mar 2023 Jun 2023 Which volcano is most likely to erupt in the near future? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
QUESTION 5 (10 marks) a) b) Use Stimulus 3 and 4 in the stimulus book to infer the impacts that changes in climatic conditions will have on crop productivity for Site A and Site B. Justify each inference with one piece of evidence from each stimulus. For each site propose a strategy that could be used to protect or enhance agricultural production. Justify your proposals using data from the stimulus. [6 marks] [4 marks]
QUESTION 7 (11 marks) This question refers to Stimulus 5—8 in the stimulus book. In January 2020 it was claimed that ‘management of the Namoi River catchment has had a negative impact on the availability and quality of fresh water in local ecosystems’. Water restrictions for general use in towns in the catchment area were implemented in December 2019 to increase the availability and quality of fresh water for local ecosystems. a) Draw aconclusion about whether the catchment has been managed effectively. Provide two reasons to support your conclusion. [3 marks] b) Discuss the claim made about the management of the catchment by using the stimulus to identify three possible causes and associated impacts on the local ecosystem. Propose and justify a solution to address the impacts. [8 marks]
QUESTION 4 The graph below shows the harvest volume from world fisheries and aquaculture production. Pe Me aM TERAYURDANURRENENGEN ANDOU AHOED ENGEOENOOO EDOO CHONG THONG OOERO HOEDY AAAS FURENVAMON COREY UOUEN PONE ARRON AEOORATOOOONOOD ETOO ETON AALS FURAN DOAN VODA VERON TOROUAORENERGON ONHODENEOD DOD ONEN SEER PURONVONONOVOUUOUEN TOOVOCHON ANGER OOOOUONOED ENOO ETON ARES! DOVANTOVAVACUEN MOAN ACHORANOOOONOOD ETOED TOU ETON as HOAY CTL EENOTAEOAO EOE CHOU EEE AOAAN ET QUENCY CONEY AERO AOE HOY CE A pe eA TT KAUEUEVEGGOACOUU TEE AAAAU UAE emcee TTT pce vO nL TT TTT pum — oowTrT Ones SOUUO} JO SUOII|IW Ul JSSATeY JO BWIN|O/A cLO? OTOZ L007 S007 cOO07 0002 L66T S66T c66T O66T L861 S86T C86T O86T LL6T SZ6T cLET OZL6T S96T c96T O96T LS6T SS6T cS6T OS6T Year © Aquaculture production gw Wild harvest Which of the following options best represents the average annual increase in aquaculture production from 1970 to 2012? (A) 2.2 million tonnes (B) (C) 1.5 million tonnes 1.3 million tonnes (D) 0.8 million tonnes
QUESTION 4 (6 marks) Determine if the variables used in Stimulus 2 in the stimulus book are suitable for predicting volcanic eruptions. Justify your response with data from the stimulus.
ADDITIONAL RESPONSE SPACE FOR QUESTION 6 If you want this diagram to be marked rule a single diagonal line through the diagram on page 8. a[e[c[o[e[r[G[a[ila[e[e i fonjmarorfurys [ish us[25[ 7 pha 23|ar sip [sf us| ao sf Za] 22 5[o9[03|02|10]agf 1s |o7 2[15|10|02 [ufos [1012 1 ozbasrftr]o4[ 1.7 01 [o7 (0901 [os 10 |23]20| 2.1 [20] 18 |10]18 [39/23] 16 s[osf1o/13[s2[¢s)21 hz 3[o9[0s[o7|aa]s 11a anos as 2 oss [28 Ny - | o0 age N o S | ~I | oO ol O}N — S n a Qe ae ou — = Bel al oe wWwlel RID — lore) NPR Nilo; e le tn n|rolMmilwluololnvnlala =) mw af SYNyrelyyeysiyo Wl o}lw]wo}rnh] N o}O}] re — ei| plo
QUESTION 14 Algal blooms caused by nutrient run-off impact long-term water quality by decreasing (A) acidity. (B) turbidity. (C) light availability. (D) dissolved oxygen.
QUESTION 3 (6 marks) This question refers to Stimulus 2 in the stimulus book. a) Determine the change in average air temperature required for the length of the gonotrophic cycle to decrease from 10 days to 5 days for Aedes aegypti. [2 marks] b) Predict the effect of an average annual 2 °C increase in temperature on the population and distribution of Aedes albopictus. Justify your prediction using two pieces of evidence from the stimulus. [4 marks]
QUESTION 13 A long-term increase in deep ocean temperatures is likely to (A) decrease oceanic circulation and cause an increase in sea levels. (B) increase oceanic circulation and cause an increase in storm frequency. (C) increase oceanic circulation and reduce the local impact of global warming. (D) decrease oceanic circulation and lead to equatorial regions becoming cooler.
QUESTION 7 A consequence of climate change that will affect ocean circulation will be evidenced by (A) (B) (C) (D) increased upwelling of warm water to the surface of the ocean. increased exchange of salt and heat between deep and upper layers of the ocean. reduced amounts of carbon dioxide being released from the ocean into the atmosphere. reduced movement of warm water away from the equator and cool water to the equator.
QUESTION 7 Determine when a PM ; concentration of 50 ug/m® could be recorded. (A) winter: 60% relative humidity (B) winter: 90% relative humidity (C) summer: 60% relative humidity (D) summer: 90% relative humidity
Difficulty: C
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Paper 1
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2023
QUESTION 12 An increase in the melting of Arctic ice caps would slow down ocean circulation due to (A) water layers of different salinities in the ocean. (B) higher air temperatures in the Arctic. (C) the slower flow rate of cold water. (D) denser water entering the ocean.
QUESTION 7 An experiment compared the energy output of a model wind turbine using four different blade shapes. Blade First trial Second trial Third trial Mean (kW h) (kW h) (kW h) (kW h) a 298 293 356 316 271 304 357 304 179 118 145 Which blade produced the most consistent supply of energy? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
QUESTION 3 (6 marks) Use Stimulus | in the stimulus book to draw a conclusion about the effectiveness of the sulfur dioxide management program. Justify your conclusion using three pieces of evidence. Identify two limitations in the data.
QUESTION 12 The diagram shows the Earth’s elliptical orbit and a theoretical circular orbit. one ta . sts 2 26—S a eee ®8sageeesese?” The feature of the Earth’s orbit that is illustrated is (A) eccentricity. (B) precession. (C) obliquity. (D) axial tilt.
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