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QUESTION 1 Identify the hormone that causes cell elongation in plants. (A) auxin (B) ethylene (C) gibberellin (D) abscisic acid
QUESTION 2 The most important function of microscopic organisms in a ruminant digestive system is the (A) digestion of fat. (B) digestion of cellulose. (C) synthesis of vitamin A. (D) absorption of amino acids.
QUESTION 3 Legume pasture species can support sustainable plant production by (A) increasing groundwater recharge. (B) improving soil structure/porosity. (C) removing excessive sodium from the topsoil. (D) improving potassium availability in soil for plant use.
QUESTION 4 The diagram shows the different processes that take place in the carbon cycle. Carbon dioxide im atmosphere Calcrum carbonate (limestone and shells) Fuels (oul coal and gas) Identify the process taking place at point X. (A) decomposition (B) fossilisation (C) respiration (D) feeding
QUESTION 5 The table shows part of the nutritional analysis for four different pig rations. Ton Calcium (%) 0.9-1.2 0.8-1.4 1.0-1.3 1.0-1.4 Use the table to identify the most appropriate ration for non-lactating sows. (A) Ration A (B) Ration B (C) Ration C (D) Ration D
QUESTION 6 The graph shows the price and domestic supply of avocados between 2011 and 2018. kz kt 7 ™) a mi ; 0 4 x) ; 3 a) — Avocado pee 30 ; ; ; 4) [| Austilian prodochon 10 ; Fy q [New Zealand imports 20ll FOO 7013 2014 #3015 «6 OMT 61 Year The change in the price of avocados between 2013 and 2014 is most likely due to (A) adecrease in the demand for avocados. (B) an increase in the demand for avocados. (C) aslight increase in the overall supply of avocados. (D) an increase in the supply of cheap avocados from New Zealand.
QUESTION 11 The supply of an agricultural product is most directly affected by the (A) amount of household disposable income. (B) number of people wanting the product. (C) market price offered for a product. (D) price of alternative products.
QUESTION 12 A disease control program for an agricultural animal follows the timeline shown in the graph. Which of the following options best describes the point labelled X on the graph? (A) the highest level of protective antibodies for the animal (B) the animal is susceptible to infection by identified microbial disease (C) immunity levels are rising in the young animal 12 months after birth (D) maternal antibodies are providing the animal with sufficient immunity
Difficulty: C
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Paper 1
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2020
QUESTION 13 The table identifies the minimum requirements for different lamb export markets. Market Liveweight Carcass weight | Preferred fat ——— range (kg) range (kg) score | Heavy export | export 38-64 20-30 | tod | to 4 Light export 25-35 10-16 ‘Hajj’ market 35-41 18-22 Identify the lamb that is best suited to the heavy export market. Liveweight (kg) | Carcass weight (kg)
QUESTION 14 Vitamins are important for a six-week-old calf because they (A) stimulate the functioning of the rumen. (B) ensure normal fat digestion. (C) improve feed efficiency. (D) support fertility.
QUESTION 15 The table shows livestock’s approximate tolerances to dissolved salts in drinking water. Livestock No adverse Reluctance Decline in condition effects (g/L) to drink (g/L) and health (g/L) piss POO | p 10-50 5.0 p 50-70 7.0 Identify the livestock that would suffer a loss in production with a total dissolved salt measurement of 4820 mg/L. (A) pigs (B) horses (C) beef cattle (D) dairy cattle
QUESTION 16 Identify the organisms that can cause a metazoal disease. (A) barber’s pole worm buffalo flies and cattle ticks (B) tapeworms liver flukes and clostridial bacteria (C) clostridial bacteria roundworms and lice (D) _ stickfast fleas cattle ticks and ringworm
QUESTION 18 Identify the genetic technique used to naturally combine desirable genes found in two or more different plant varieties to produce superior pure-breeding offspring. (A) grafting (B) hybridisation (C) tissue culture (D) genetic modification
QUESTION 19 Feed sources that could be used to meet the crude protein requirement for a ewe that has lambed are (A) molasses grassy lucerne and wheat grain. (B) wheat grain grassy lucerne and chickpeas. (C) sorghum grain chickpeas and immature grass pasture. (D) sorghum grain cottonseed meal and immature grass pasture. Use these tables for Questions 19 and 20. The tables contain a nutrient analysis for different animal feeds and the minimum recommended crude protein for sheep at different stages of development. Animal feed Metabolisable energy | Crude protein (“%) Dry matter (“%) a kg dry matter) |Wheat grain |Wheat grain a a a [cuts] [onsvheme | BS Fiomaoegasswe] [couomednet fT Dosee
QUESTION 20 To supply approximately 47 MJ metabolisable energy and 0.51 kg crude protein on a dry matter basis to animals that will be introduced to a feedlot for a short period of time and are expected to eat 5 kg a day an appropriate ration 1s (A) 4kg wheat grain + | kg chickpeas. (B) 3 kg wheat grain + 2 kg chickpeas. (C) 3 kg grassy lucerne + 2 kg wheat grain. (D) 4kg immature grass pasture + | kg wheat grain. Use these tables for Questions 19 and 20. The tables contain a nutrient analysis for different animal feeds and the minimum recommended crude protein for sheep at different stages of development. Animal feed Metabolisable energy | Crude protein (%) Dry matter (“%) a kg dry matter) |Wheat grain |Wheat grain a [cutesy fonsvee [| BSCdSO Finucane] [covoseimet | Sd Dose
QUESTION 21 (4 marks) Use an example to explain the process that an agricultural plant product undergoes between harvest and sale to the consumer.
QUESTION 22 (4 marks) A producer has a 10-ha paddock with 2000 kg DM/ha of feed available. Calculate the number of 300-kg steers the producer could run in the paddock for 25 days. Assume these steers have a pasture intake of 10 kg DM/head/day and that pastures should be destocked to prevent over-grazing when they are at a mass of 1000 kg green DM/ha. Show your working.
QUESTION 23 (6 marks) Foot and mouth disease (FMD) is a severe highly contagious disease of cloven-hoofed animals such as cattle sheep and pigs. The most common signs of FMD are fluid-filled blisters and ulcers in the mouth and on the feet lameness excessive salivation and loss of appetite. There is no specific treatment for FMD. If an outbreak were to occur in Australia movement control measures would need to be initiated. All infected animals would need to be destroyed. Draw three conclusions about the impact of an FMD outbreak on Australian livestock industries. Provide reasoning to support each of your conclusions.
QUESTION 25 (4 marks) The table contains mean values for feed intake feed conversion ratio average daily weight gain and end-of-trial fat depth of feedlot lambs that were given feeds formulated at different energy levels. Feed Intake (kg/day) Feed Average daily | Fat depth (mm) conversion ratio | gain (g/day) | Low energy | | 23405 | | 5106 | 476+ 30.0 Medium energy —_ +09 oo +05 512 + 30.1 ee High energy 17 +03 39 + 0.6 528 +314 Contrast the results of using the different feeds. Draw conclusions about the best feed for fat lamb production.
QUESTION 26 (4 marks) a) b) c) d) What is a tariff? What is a free trade agreement? Explain why the European Union (EU) currently has a tariff on Australian lamb and beef. Explain the impact that a tariff as high as 50% has on the sale of Australian goods in the EU. [1 mark] [1 mark] [1 mark] [1 mark]
QUESTION 28 (7 marks) Mulesing involves the removal of wool-bearing skin from the breech area of a sheep. In 2008 over 95% of wool growers used this technique (without pain relief) to prevent flystrike in their flocks. The graph shows the change in the percentage of wool growers who either do not practise mulesing ceased mulesing or use pain relief with mulesing. The table shows how long it would take to improve resistance to flystrike in sheep using an alternative method to mulesing. [|] Pam relief [ij] Ceased mulesing ra Wl Not mulesed S Wool growers % 3 Wrinkle score Risk Proportion of flock (%) Note: An assessment of wrinkle score will provide an indication of breech flystrike risk. 30% at risk can be culled and maintain a stable flock. a) Use the graph to calculate the percentage change in producers who practised mulesing with pain relief between February 2009 and February 2019. Show your working. [2 marks] b) Use the table to identify the alternative method to mulesing. [1 mark] c) Draw aconclusion about how willing wool producers were to adopt this method. Use data to justify your conclusion. [4 marks]
QUESTION 29 (4 marks) The table shows data from a greenhouse trial which was conducted to compare hydroponic and soil-grown strawberries. Mean mass of individual berries + SD (g) 5.4 + 3.0 71 43.7 Water use (L) 1363 1968 Analyse the data to determine the best growing medium for strawberries in a market in which the price per kg is 10% higher for hydroponically grown strawberries.
QUESTION 30 (3 marks) Use an example to explain two benefits for farmers who use genetically engineered crops.
QUESTION 2 (3 marks) a) Identify an advantage of tissue culture and explain how this can be used in an agricultural setting. [2 marks] b) Describe the genetic relationship between the original plant and the new plant in the process of tissue culture. [1 mark]
QUESTION 3 (3 marks) The graph shows the domestic price of strawberries in New Zealand from June (J) 2006 to December (D) 2011. ike 40 NAAR AA 0 JS DMISDMWMISDMIJ]IS OMI SS DMI 5 BD AKG 2007 200K 2009 2010 2011 a) Determine the change in domestic price between December 2008 and March (M) 2009. [1 mark] b) Identify the season likely to see the greatest supply of strawberries. Provide a reason for your decision. [2 marks]
QUESTION 5 (4 marks) Identify two plant pests or diseases that are significant for plant industries. Describe why each pest or disease 1s a major issue for its respective industry. Plant pest/disease 1: Plant pest/disease 2:
QUESTION 7 (4 marks) An experiment was conducted to determine the effect of spraying different concentrations of a hormone on the maturation of different apple varieties. a) Identify the plant hormone that was applied to the apples. Explain the effect this hormone has on apple maturation time using evidence from the graph. [2 marks] b) Identify the optimum concentration of hormone that should be applied to Golden apples. Provide reasoning to support your decision. [2 marks]
QUESTION 8 (6 marks) Two groups of sheep were grown under different management strategies. One group was weaned at 4 months and sent to the abattoir. The second group was weaned at 3 months and then fed on grain for 40 days before being sent to the abattoir. The tables show the results for each of the management strategies and the minimum requirements for different lamb markets. Management strategy Average Daily weight gain Final fat Dressing birthweight (kg/day) depth (mm) | percentage (kg) — _1_| wean after 90 a 4.5 Before weaning: 0.25 Fed grain for 40 days On grain: 0.40 Market Carcass weight (kg) Fat depth (mm) Grain feeding aS a ec a) Determine the expected final weight and carcass weight of the two groups of sheep. Give your answers to two decimal places. [4 marks] b) Determine the target market for the two groups of sheep. [2 marks]
QUESTION 1 The table contains feed consumption and live weight data for four different agricultural animals. Identify the animal that has the best feed conversion ratio. Animal | Mass of food | Mass gained by eaten (kg) the animal (kg)
QUESTION 3 A dairy farmer is planning to introduce new genetics into the herd to improve milk protein yield. The table shows Australian Breeding Values (ABVs) for four bulls. Identify the bull the farmer should use to improve the milk protein content of the herd. Milk protein yield Milk yield Fat yield rol dry/lactation) (L/lactation) ——
QUESTION 5 The table shows the population data collected in a study of four edible insect species in a 10-ha area. Species Year Th. gigas B. Identify the species that could be a commercial option if harvested for human consumption in the local region. (A) C. redtembacheri H. (B) A. hesperiaris W. (C) M. melliger W. (D) Th. gigas B.
QUESTION 6 In a monogastric animal carbohydrates are absorbed in the (A) rumen. (B) true stomach. (C) large intestine. (D) small intestine.
QUESTION 7 The diagram shows a simplified nutrient cycle. Carbon dioxide in atmosphere Soil organic matter Identify the process marked X on the diagram. (A) respiration (B) combustion (C) decomposition (D) photosynthesis
QUESTION 8 Crossbreeding involves developing new plant varieties by crossing offspring from (A) related plants with themselves. (B) unrelated plants of different varieties. (C) related plants until the offspring are purebred. (D) plants of different varieties by using pollen in sterile cultures.
QUESTION 9 Identify which type of animal uses volatile fatty acids as its major source of energy. (A) fish (B) goats (C) horses (D) poultry
QUESTION 10 The table shows the percentage of nutrients found in four different poultry feeds. Identify the most appropriate feed for laying hens. Minimum | Minimum | Maximum | Maximum | Minimum Minimum crude crude fat | crude fibre | added salt calcium available phosphorus (%)
QUESTION 11 The table shows the bone muscle and fat percentages of carcasses for a type of agricultural animal at different stages of the production cycle. The stages are not in any order. Stage of production Muscle (“%) A conclusion supported by the data in the table is that the animal at (A) Stage I is a leaner carcass than the animal at Stage IV. (B) Stage IV is a younger animal than the animal at Stage II. (C) Stage II has a lower meat yield than the animal at Stage III. (D) Stage II is at an earlier stage of its production cycle than the animal at Stage I.
QUESTION 12 Dairy goat production could be positively influenced by (A) (B) (C) (D) breeding with an F1 generation male. vaccinating annually for clostridial diseases. grazing on a lucerne pasture for an extended time. moving stock into a paddock that is currently being grazed by sheep.
QUESTION 14 Chlorothalonil is a fungicide that controls downy mildew in zucchinis. The recommended application schedule is 7 to 14 days. When disease pressure is high the manufacturer recommends spraying at 2.5 L/ha at 7-day intervals. Identify the total volume of fungicide required for a 3.5-ha zucchini crop over a 2-week period in which 10 mL of rain has fallen. (A) 7.00L (B) 8.75L (C) 17.50L (D) 26.25L
QUESTION 15 The most effective alternative method to mulesing in sheep is (A) (B) (C) (D) breeding sheep without wool in the breech area. moving sheep to a new paddock. vaccinating for diseases. providing pain relief.
QUESTION 17 The graphs show the effect of 25 mg/L GA; spray applied to mandarin trees on peel fresh weight (I) pulp fresh weight including juice content (II) and peel:pulp ratio (III). Error bars indicate standard error. 40- Key I 36- (se s: || Control Peel fresh weight 7 (e/fruit) > . E 25 mg/L GA; | 2875 1207 Il 110- Pulp fresh weight - (g/fruit) ™ NS WY! WY WW MM 90- = WW WIR WK SN o2) on) | ur N Na Il Peel:pulp ratio ae aE Fwy Lh IN IW N Oo | WI 2 40 N oS 8 Time after application (days) A conclusion that could be drawn from this experiment is that GA; treatment (A) slowed the increase in peel weight during maturation. (B —_ significantly decreased the pulp weight during maturation. (C —_ significantly delayed the naturally occurring decrease in peel:pulp ratio. (D — significantly increased the peel weight compared to the control treatment.
QUESTION 18 A market specification criterion used only by Meat Standards Australia (MSA) is (A) fat depth. (B) meat colour. (C) carcass weight. (D) tropical content.
QUESTION 20 In a ruminant animal fats are broken down into (A) amino acids. (B) hydrochloric acid. (C) volatile fatty acids. (D) essential fatty acids.
QUESTION 21 (1 mark) Identify the six different types of energy involved in digestion and metabolism of food.
QUESTION 24 (6 marks) a) Identify one significant animal disease that affects production. [1 mark] b) Identify two health effects and two economic effects of the disease identified in Question 24a). [2 marks] c) Use an example to explain a biological method of pest control and the conditions that should be met before it is used to control an animal pest. [3 marks]
QUESTION 25 (5 marks) The graph shows changes in pasture quality over time. The table contains the energy and protein requirements for weaner sheep at different live weights. Digestibility Energy Protein (%) (MJ ME/kg DM) = (%) Hich ® Active growth 95-10 16 1g production @ Late vegetation @ Early flowering Moderate 75 10 production @ Mid flowering @ Dry grass and stalks Weight loss of dry stock @ Dry stalks Time Live weight Weaner < 20 kg | Weaner 20-25 kg | Weaner > 25 kg Metabolisable energy (MJ/kg dry matter) 3.4-4.5 4.5—5.7 5.7-6.8 Crude protein (“) 14-16 12-14 10-12 a) Describe one function of protein in an animal’s diet. [1 mark] b) Use the table to identify the relationship between the crude protein requirement and the weight of weaner sheep. [1 mark] c) Use the graph and table to draw a conclusion about the effect on animal growth if a group of 30 kg weaner sheep was fed a grass-based pasture at the late flowering and dry grass and stalks stages. Explain your reasoning. [3 marks]
QUESTION 28 (6 marks) A dairy farm in the tick-free zone of Queensland has been quarantined due to a cattle tick infestation. The producer is required to treat their animals over a two-year period to eradicate the infestation and then continue to treat their animals to prevent re-infestation. Discuss an effective strategy for a two-year period considering the goals and implications of using chemicals in a dairy enterprise.
QUESTION 3 (3 marks) Explain the role of a beneficial organism in a plant production system. Use two examples in your response.
QUESTION 4 (4 marks) The table shows the effect of increasing foliar application of magnesium on the average number and weight of chilli fruits at harvest. Uncertainties indicate 95% confidence intervals. Number of fruits | Fresh weight of fruits (g) 7.0 +0.1 139.0 + 1.0 50 ppm 17.0 + 0.6 226.0 + 1.2 100 ppm 18.3412 260.0 + 1.2 150 ppm 21.0 + 1.2 274.0 + 1.2 Use the data to discuss how foliar application of magnesium affects the yield of chilli plants.
QUESTION 5 (4 marks) The graphs show generalised growth trends for animals’ weight and percentage composition. Time Percentage Time Use the graphs to draw a conclusion about why animals are suitable for different markets at different ages. Justify your conclusion with three pieces of evidence.
QUESTION 6 (7 marks) The table contains information about the market share (% volume) and value for different egg production systems in the 2018 financial year. System Market volume | Market value | Eggs produced Change (%) (%) (x 1000) in market volume from 2017 (“%) Cage eggs 43.99 30.68 101 038 Free-range eggs 45.38 56.36 104211 13.80 a) Determine which egg production system would have the highest value per egg in the marketplace. Justify your answer using two pieces of evidence. [3 marks] b) Infer reasons for two trends in the change of egg production systems. [4 marks]
QUESTION 7 (5 marks) A beef producer in southern Queensland wants to take advantage of an unseasonal late-winter rainfall of 110 mm and plant a summer forage crop. The beef producer is unsure if the crop will be grazed off or mechanically removed as hay or bale-wrapped silage. This decision will depend on future growing conditions. The table shows the mean rainfall usually experienced in the region. The information in the graphs describes the characteristics of three different varieties of forage sorghum suitable for the region. Fn ee Nov [ De Mean rainfall 129.8 | 144.0 | 104.7 | 43.0 | 45.3 26.8 | 24.2 | 49.5 104.3 (mm) Key Rating: | | Sorghum A sl. 1 = poor 7 Sorghum B Hayman SZ 9 = excellent Sorghum C yy EC—C—“‘($NCOUC 9 8 Late summer/ 3 a Beef grazing 2 carryover feed 2 Wd Lu a) ee 3 7 9 Sheep grazing 4 Round bale silage 6 4 6 Determine the best variety of forage sorghum for this producer to plant. Justify your decision with four pieces of evidence from the data.
QUESTION 8 (3 marks) Explain the term cultural practice. Give two examples of cultural practices used in a plant production system.
QUESTION 1 The diagram shows the life cycle of the barber’s pole worm in sheep. A strategy to break the life cycle of a worm-infected paddock is to rotate sheep with horses. Adult worms lay If weather is suitable eggs that pass onto | | | larvae hatch pasture in dung | Larvae migrate from dung to pasture C@ S Larvae develop into adults MM Z ZG in about three weeks a ahs =—_~ Infective larvae are eaten by sheep Ma_ How many weeks between sheep rotations would be the most suitable? (A) one (B) two (C) three (D) four
QUESTION 2 Fluctuation in the diameter of wool fibres of a purebred merino flock over a calendar year is mainly due to (A) genetic variation among sheep. (B) changes in the taste of leaf material. (C) changes in temperature across the year. (D) variation in the quality of available pasture.
QUESTION 3 The table shows a planting strategy for a producer planning to use the cotton variety Bollgard 3 which carries the Bt insecticidal protein. It includes refuge areas planted with non-Bt cotton and pigeon pea. Spraying of cotton is performed before bolling begins to ensure a threshold population is not reached and reduce the incidence of resistant moths. Cotton Irrigated sprayed Refuge cotton Irrigated unsprayed Pigeon pea Irrigated unsprayed What is the primary reason for this planting strategy in terms of integrated pest management? (A) Either refuge crop allows breeding of non-resistant bollworm moths to dilute genetic resistance. (B) Either refuge crop will attract most of the bollworm moths away from most of the cotton. (C) Pigeon pea is planted to provide a refuge for predatory insects of the bollworm moth. (D) Pigeon pea is planted to improve the nutrient profile of the soil.
QUESTION 7 The first stage of fat digestion (excluding volatile fatty acids) in mature cattle occurs in the (A) small intestine. (B) abomasum. (C) omasum. (D) rumen.
QUESTION 8 An increase in the price of red meat in Queensland domestic markets will occur after (A) a12-month period of continuous negative southern oscillation values. (B) an increase in customer demand for alternative vegan products. (C) adecrease in the quota allowed for live export of cattle. (D) above average rainfall totals across production areas.
QUESTION 9 The graph shows a change in the supply and demand of apples. Price Quantity Which statement best describes the change in the supply (S) demand (D) and price of apples? (A) (B) (C) (D) A marketing campaign increased the demand for apples. Production losses in the major growing areas decreased supply. Increasing production costs reduced the supply for a given price. New technology reduced the cost for farmers and increased supply.
QUESTION 10 Select the combination of processes that best describes the role of microscopic organisms in the rumen. Process 1 Process 2 “ Absorption of nitrogen Absorption of carbohydrates Conversion of carbohydrates to volatile Conversion of nitrogen to microbial protein fatty acids Degradation of protein to amino acids Conversion of carbohydrates to volatile fatty acids Conversion of nitrogen to microbial protein Absorption of carbohydrates
QUESTION 11 The diagram shows the nitrogen cycle. Nitrogen gas (N>) in atmosphere Animal protein Plant protein Lightning Ammonia (NH) Nitrate (NO3) in soil in soil The organisms responsible for the process occurring at point I in the diagram are (A) nitrifying bacteria. (B) denitrifying bacteria. (C) decomposing bacteria. (D) nitrogen-fixing bacteria.
QUESTION 12 A beef producer expanded their business by constructing a feedlot on their breeding property. What element of standard operating procedures for cattle in Queensland must now be a higher priority for intensive animal production? (A) yard flooring (B) humane killing (C) water requirements (D) transport and travel distance
QUESTION 13 What function does abscisic acid perform in plants? (A) inhibiting growth (B) stimulating root growth (C) decreasing internodal length (D) increasing rate of ripening fruit
QUESTION 14 Protein functions in ruminant animals include (A) increasing marbling in meat and providing energy for muscle development. (B) enabling chemical reactions and production of genetic material. (C) improving water retention and increasing faecal output. (D) improving energy output in cells and urinary function.
QUESTION 15 A characteristic of an unsustainable biological control method is (A) anarrow host range for the biological control organism. (B) an increase in the population of the competing species. (C) the disappearance of the biological control organism. (D) areduction in the population of the targeted pest.
QUESTION 17 An experiment tested the effect of a hormone applied to dwarf peas at three different concentrations. 34 Mean plant height at 21 days (cm + SE) 1 2 3 - Hormone concentration group After 21 days on average plants in (A) group | grew less than group 2. (B) group 4 grew less than group 3. (C) group 3 grew more than group 1. (D) group 4 grew more than group 1.
QUESTION 18 Controlled traffic as a land management practice in agricultural production is used to (A) reduce soil compaction. (B) improve the soil microbiology. (C) increase organic matter in the soil by retaining stubble. (D) incorporate matching land capabilities for long-term sustainability.
QUESTION 21 (4 marks) The graph shows the relationship between the mean wheat yield and the crop rotation system used. 3600 3000 2400 1800 Mean wheat yield (kg/ha) 600 - 0 | | —_— 3510 3347 | 3166 | 2566 2950 | 2658 1200 _ CW CW WWWW W LW CWWW Crop rotation M | 3422-—_ W : CM W Key W=wheat C=canola L = lupin M = medic Note: Canola has a deeper tap root system than medic species. Draw a conclusion about which crop rotation will allow the greatest opportunity for sustainable plant production. Justify your conclusion using evidence and explain two benefits of this crop rotation system.
QUESTION 22 (7 marks) a) Identify two differences between the quality of feedlot rations and green fodder crops. [2 marks] A producer has recently weaned first-cross lambs that currently have a mean weight of 32 kg. The Meat Standards Australia requirements for selling lamb and feed options for these lambs are shown in the tables. Dressing percentage (lambs) Uneaned (6) Weaned (6) Lamb finishing system First-cross weight gain (g/head/day) Feedlot rations b) Determine the optimal feeding system to use if the weaned lambs are to go to market in 60 days with a fat score of 3 and a maximum carcass weight of 20 kg. Show your reasoning. [5 marks]
QUESTION 23 (2 marks) Explain the process of tissue culture and its use in agricultural production.
QUESTION 24 (5 marks) The graph shows changes in the body composition of two steers of different breeds A and B at different times during their development. a) b) 500 ' ' \ ‘ ' ' Key 450 : : : : : 3 — Steer A muscle 400 ---- Steer A fat 350 —-- Steer B muscle eH ~ 300 Steer B fat a S250 3 oO D 200 io 150 100 50 0 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 Age (years) Determine which steer matures earlier. Justify your decision. [2 marks] Discuss the implications of using an early maturing breed in terms of accessibility to different markets. In your response propose a solution for producers that allows them to meet different market requirements. [3 marks]
QUESTION 25 (3 marks) Identify two features of an online auction in the context of an agricultural industry.
QUESTION 1 (4 marks) White spot disease (WSD) is caused by a highly contagious viral infection that affects crustaceans such as prawns lobsters and crabs. The virus that causes WSD poses no risk to food safety or human health but when found in high production areas like prawn farms it causes rapid animal death. WSD is spread by the movement of infected animals or contaminated water. Birds that feed on infected animals and move to another location can readily spread the disease. Fin fish do not carry the disease and are not affected by it. WSD was first identified in prawn farms and following a 4-year extensive eradication and monitoring program was no longer detected in the local environment. Explain two strategies that could be implemented to reduce the incidence of WSD if it is detected again.
QUESTION 2 (4 marks) a) Explain why beef producers choose to use hormone growth promotants (HGPs). [2 marks] The graph shows the effects of HGPs on three aspects of meat quality in cattle. 70 Key |_|] Not HGP treated Mi HGP treated Mean score Tenderness Juiciness Flavour b) Draw a conclusion about the overall effect of HGPs on meat quality. Justify your conclusion using evidence from the graph. [2 marks]
QUESTION 4 (5 marks) The graph shows the effect of different preservative treatments on the shelf life of radish. 10 9 Treatment A | Control 8 Treatment B | 0.6% calcium nitrate 7 > Treatment C | 0.6% humic acid > 6 3 2 5 Treatment D | 0.6% calcium nitrate 2p and 0.6% humic acid 5 4 n 3 2 1 0 A B C D Treatment a) Identify differences between each of the treatments used. [3 marks] b) Identify a negative effect of using preservatives on radish crops and explain the potential effect on consumer satisfaction. [2 marks]
QUESTION 5 (3 marks) Some egg producers use battery or caged chickens to produce eggs. a) Identify an ethical issue with this type of production. b) Identify a welfare issue with this type of production. c) Explain the difference between ethical and welfare issues. [1 mark] [1 mark] [1 mark]
QUESTION 7 (7 marks) African swine fever (ASF) has had an impact on animal production in countries where it is prevalent. In 2019 10% of the total pig population in China an estimated 44 million pigs died of ASF. The first graph shows pork consumption per person in various countries and the second graph shows current and projected levels of pork consumption per person compared to other animal protein sources in China. Consumption per person (kg) World China China average (mainland) (Hong Kong) 120 F) 3 ‘e 100 a oy au 2 80 (a0) & = 60 of a roy = 40 a 5 he 20 (qe) cD) => (0) 2015 2020 2025 Year Key oq Lamb |_| Beef BE Poultry Fish |_| Pork a) Draw conclusions about the effect of ASF on protein availability in China. Justify your conclusions. b) Discuss three impacts that ASF would have on the pig industry in Australia if it was identified in local piggeries.
QUESTION 8 (3 marks) A plant trial was conducted to assess the effect of different amounts of fertiliser on the mean weight of corn produced. 20009 1800 —— | > A 1600 Ho frerrrrrsercnrseccenefeccenseecnnseesnnseretbessenesl Locconserbosseeend esccnnsbeconsscsennsescnnsscen SH 1400} ——} pp E 1200 | g — 1000} }——_ fF YF = 800 | ONT PT) OO) = 6003 f—}—} FF OY E 400}—} |} —}—} 4 Ot 200 SS 2s Ss os SS Amount of fertiliser (g/pot) Identify the relationships shown between the amount of fertiliser and mean weight of corn produced.
QUESTION 1 A farmer has purchased a neglected overgrown orchard. Which option would be the initial strategy to use in an IPM strategy? (A) chemical control of pests and diseases (B) biological control using predators (C) physical removal of vegetation (D) physical traps for insects
QUESTION 2 Identify where most fat digestion occurs in monogastric animals. (A) (B) (C) (D) liver mouth stomach small intestine
QUESTION 3 The table identifies the functions of different plant hormones. Function Hormone Ethylene | Gibberellin | Abscisic acid Cumin Gowwnawiy |v |e x ovene [wv x x1 < v Seed dormancy Identify which hormone contributes primarily to reproductive stage development in plants. (A) auxin (B) ethylene (C) gibberellin (D) abscisic acid
QUESTION 5 Which ration would best suit the general nutritional requirements of an egg-laying chicken? Minimum protein (%) Minimum calcium (“%) Maximum crude fibre (“%) (A) | 19.5 1.0 6.0 (B) | 15.5 3.5 10.0 (Cc) | 15.5 1.0 11.5 D
QUESTION 8 Deformed bones were observed in an animal herd. This condition is most likely caused by a deficiency in (A) iron. (B) calcium. (C) nitrogen. (D) phosphorus.
QUESTION 14 Australian agricultural products are often referred to as ‘clean and green’ because (A) produce is grown through conventional methods and sold directly to consumers. (B) sustainable methods are used to produce food with quality assurance programs. (C) the food produced is considered safe and farming systems maintain soil health. (D) there is limited use of chemicals and genetic breeding is used to control pests.
QUESTION 16 Which management strategy would control pests and diseases in an extensive animal industry? (A) (B) (C) (D) visual inspections of poultry sheds removing animal waste from a cattle feedlot selection of short-coated cattle for animal production maintenance of pastures in free-range egg production
QUESTION 17 The diagram represents a ruminant stomach. Not to scale The main nutritional contribution of the microbes found in X is (A) vitamin C synthesis. (B) cellulose breakdown to volatile fatty acids. (C) increased absorption of potassium and phosphorus. (D) methane production from carbohydrate breakdown.
QUESTION 18 Minimum tillage practices can (A) (B) (C) (D) speed up water loss from the soil profile. increase the rate of carbon loss from the soil. reduce disease and populations of soil-borne pests. improve infiltration of water through the soil profile.
QUESTION 20 Consumer demand has resulted in the availability of more pain relief strategies for animal husbandry procedures. The graph shows the effect of different types of pain relief on the average growth rate of calves in the first month after castration. The graph includes standard error bars. Topical 0.0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1.0 Growth rate (kg/day) Types of pain relief Which two types of pain relief show statistically similar mean values for growth rate? (A) control and topical (B) injectable and topical (C) topical and combination of injectable and topical (D) injectable and combination of injectable and topical
QUESTION 21 (4 marks) Explain the post-harvest processes involved in getting a horticultural plant product of your choice from the farm to the shop.
QUESTION 23 (8 marks) The Varroa mite is a honeybee parasite that has a major impact on overseas honey and related enterprises killing large populations of bees and weakening colonies. If uncontrolled Varroa mite infestation in honeybee colonies severely impacts honey production but can also affect a wide range of pollination-reliant crops. a) b) Cc) d) Identify two management strategies that beekeepers or biosecurity officers could implement to restrict the movement of Varroa mite outside of an infested area. [2 marks] Identify another pest associated with an agricultural animal of regional importance and explain its effect on this animal. [2 marks] Describe two stages of the life cycle of the pest from Question 23b). [2 marks] Identify the point in the life cycle of the pest from Question 23b) where it is most vulnerable and explain why. [2 marks]
QUESTION 24 (3 marks) Explain how sowing rates and plant spacings differ between dryland and irrigated environmental conditions for a broadacre crop of your choice.
QUESTION 26 (3 marks) An experiment was conducted to assess the effect food additives had on weight gain in layer chickens. The graph shows the feed conversion ratios for layer chickens fed two different additives compared to a commercial ration (the control). 125+ |} | Ee C 0.75 Feed conversion ratio 0.50 0.25 _ ontrol Additive A Additive B Draw a conclusion about which feed type provides the optimal feed conversion for layer chickens. Use two pieces of evidence from the graph to support your conclusion.
QUESTION 27 (3 marks) Aphids are a common pest in cereal crops. The table identifies different control methods. Control method Monitoring aphid population Crop rotation Preserving predators e.g. ladybirds Introducing enemies e.g. parasitic wasps Use of insecticides Use of seed dressings a) Identify which control methods are biological controls. [1 mark] b) Explain two advantages of using biological controls. [2 marks]
QUESTION 2 (5 marks) An agricultural class entered two animals into a carcass competition at a local agricultural show. The tables show the carcass characteristics for both animals a price grid and price penalties/premiums for the domestic market. avid AB Carcass weight (HSCW) (kg) Sex Female Male Condition score A A HSCW (kg) | Price (c/kg) 6 6 [b [Seketes thn Condition score D 50c/kg less than price grid 80c/kg less than price grid MSA premium 25c/kg more than price grid Determine which animal is worth more on the domestic market. Show working to justify your decision.
QUESTION 3 (3 marks) Explain one positive and one negative consequence of genetic modification for a plant of your choice.
QUESTION 6 (3 marks) a) Identify an asexual plant propagation method. [1 mark] b) Describe the method identified in Question 6a) using an agricultural example. [2 marks]
QUESTION 10 (4 marks) Mad cow disease (BSE) is an exotic disease to Australia. It is spread by cattle eating animal products containing the disease and originated through cattle being supplemented with protein from meat and bonemeal. In 1996 BSE was identified as potentially passing from animals to humans in Great Britain. The graph shows beef exports from Great Britain from 1993 to 2001. 400 350 ‘sol 250 200 150 100 0 Ld [| [| [| [ 1993 1994 1995 1996 1997 1998 1999 2000 2001 Year Mass (x 1000 tonnes) a) Determine how introducing BSE to Australia could affect a cattle production system. [2 marks] b) Identify two strategies Australia currently uses that reduce the risk or effect of BSE being introduced. [2 marks]
QUESTION 2 Which of the following is a major function of rumen bacteria in animal nutrition? (A) (B) (C) (D) secreting enzymes to assist in the breakdown of carbohydrates into volatile fatty acids secreting enzymes to assist in the breakdown of fats into fatty acids and glycerol synthesising carbohydrates to simple sugars synthesising vitamin D
QUESTION 3 Which pathway represents the metabolism of energy in animals? (A) gross energy — digestible energy — net energy — metabolisable energy — maintenance and production energy (B) gross energy — digestible energy — metabolisable energy — net energy — maintenance and production energy (C) gross energy — digestible energy — maintenance and production energy — metabolisable energy — net energy (D) gross energy — metabolisable energy — digestible energy — ammonia — maintenance and production energy — net energy
QUESTION 4 Four steers were weighed to calculate their feed conversion ratios (FCR) as shown in the table below. Animal I Il IV 5.6: | From the data in the table which two animals would be the costliest to finish for optimum condition if all four animals were introduced to a feedlot finishing ration? (A) Animal I and Animal III (B) Animal I and Animal IV (C) Animal II and Animal III (D) Animal II and Animal IV
QUESTION 5 The figure below shows the differently sized seeds of various agricultural crops pastures and weeds. The diagrams are drawn to scale. From the information in the figure which of the following seeds is most likely to successfully establish if planted deeper in the soil? (A) giant foxtail (B) soybeans (C) wheat (D) corn
QUESTION 6 The nutrient that legumes least require at planting compared to other agricultural crops 1s (A) phosphorus. (B) potassium. (C) nitrogen. (D) calcium.
QUESTION 7 The figure below shows the results of a trial conducted on cotton seedlings to investigate the effect on internodal length of applying an unknown hormone to the seedlings. 100 90 80 70 60 50 40 30 20 10 0 — Hormone --- Control aa a oe = - - Thad - Internodal length (mm) =o - -=—-—= te _ ad - = - _ - — 0 5 10 15 20 Time (days) Analyse the results in the figure to determine the phase of the trial where the seedlings showed the greatest percentage response to the hormone application. (A) days 0 to 5 (B) days 5 to 10 (C) days 10 to 15 (D) days 15 to 20
QUESTION 8 The graph below shows the relationship between live weight and age for four different animals. — Animal I Live ---- Animal II weight aaessescuee Animal III —:—-: Animal IV Age Which animal illustrates the typical growth curve of an animal over its life up to slaughter? (A) Animal I (B) Animal II (C) Animal II (D) Animal IV
QUESTION 9 Some of the market specifications for an animal carcass set by industry bodies (e.g. Meat Standards Australia) include (A) (B) (C) (D) rib fat external parasite count sex carcass weight pH meat colour tropical breed content hormone growth promotants. carcass weight pH meat colour marbling sex rib fat tropical breed content hormone growth promotants. pH meat colour marbling sex tropical breed content rib fat carcass weight marbling hide colour. meat colour marbling rib fat carcass weight pH sex polledness hormone growth promotants.
QUESTION 10 The figure below shows the target market specifications for cattle carcasses. Long Fed 400 Short-Mid Fed 300 Carcass weight k (kg) 200 100 Fat score P8 fat depth mm 1-2 3-6 7-12 13-22 23-32 The table below shows the carcass weight fat score and fat depth for four different animals. From the information in the figure and table which animal/s would most likely meet MSA market requirements? (A) Animal I (B) Animal I and Animal III (C) Animal II and Animal III (D) Animal IV
QUESTION 11 Which of the following is an example of a marketing technique for an agricultural product? (A) quality assurance (B) value-adding (C) auctioning (D) _ bartering
QUESTION 13 A producer is most likely to change from a regular production system to a certified organic system because of their need to (A) respond to a change in consumer demands. (B) maximise output while minimising input. (C) increase crop yields. (D) reduce labour costs.
QUESTION 15 In terms of plant production “biological control’ means pest and disease control methods (A) that use chemicals. (B) _ that introduce a natural enemy or predator. (C) where the pest is attacked and/or destroyed. (D) that use a combination of synthetic techniques.
QUESTION 16 The labels below provide information about Products A and B. Product A Product B For active immunisation against pulpy kidney For active immunisation against pulpy kidney black disease tetanus blackleg vibriosis and lamb dysentery tetanus and vibriosis in pigs. malignant oedema in sheep goats and cattle. For active immunisation against pulpy kidney For active immunisation against tetanus and haemorrhagic enterotoxaemia malignant oedema haemorrhagic enterotoxaemia in horses. blackleg black disease redwater and tetanus in ruminant animals. Compare the information about diseases controlled by Product A and Product B. A disease that is covered by both products for ruminants is (A) haemorrhagic enterotoxaemia. (B) malignant oedema. (C) dysentery. (D) vibriosis.
QUESTION 17 An exotic disease is (A) an organism that injures irritates or damages livestock livestock products or plant products and that can adversely affect production. (B) adisorder of structure or function in an animal or plant that is not simply a direct result of physical injury. (C) ananimal disorder that by law must be reported to government authorities. (D) an infectious disease that normally does not occur in the region.
QUESTION 18 The term animal welfare considers the (A) physical and psychological wellbeing of animals. (B) husbandry practices that maximise animal production. (C) study of non-human relations including animal rights and animal psychological welfare. (D) process of an animal increasing in size and weight with the assistance of management decisions.
QUESTION 21 (4 marks) The market share of free-range and barn-laid egg production systems has increased from 2009 to 2018. a) Explain a reason for the increase in the market share of free-range and barn-laid eggs. [2 marks] b) Explain a risk management strategy that a producer of caged eggs could adopt to avoid declining market share. [2 marks]
QUESTION 24 (3 marks) Identify three components of nutrition that are important to agricultural animals.
QUESTION 25 (3 marks) Define the following plant terms. a) herbicide b) nematicide c) grafting [1 mark] [1 mark] [1 mark]
QUESTION 26 (2 marks) Explain why tissue culture is used in breeding new plant varieties.
QUESTION 27 (2 marks) An animal study fed four groups of birds of the same age the same ration for a period of seven days. The table below shows the birds’ average mass gain and the amount of food consumed for each group. Mass of food eaten (g) / animal Interpret the results to decide which group of birds is genetically superior in terms of production. Explain your decision.
QUESTION 28 (2 marks) Identify where carbohydrates are absorbed into the blood in a) ruminant animals [1 mark] b) monogastric animals. [1 mark]
QUESTION 29 (3 marks) A beef producer in tropical Queensland wishes to implement an integrated management program to control buffalo flies in their herd. Dung beetles reduce buffalo fly populations by removing or spreading dung so flies cannot breed in it. Dung beetles are most active in hot humid weather (i.e. wet season October—March) which coincides with the period when flies are most active. To help increase the dung beetle population farmers must consider using chemicals that are known to have little or no effect on the beetles and avoid using chemicals at peak dung beetle breeding times. Three chemical products available for buffalo fly control are Product A Product B and Product C. Product A Product B Product C Potential activity period of the chemical after a 21 days 14-18 days up to 21 days single treatment Likelihood of resistance in flies to the chemical Likely activity period of the chemical where around 10 days around 7 days 7-10 days there is resistance in flies Use data from the table to decide which product a producer should use at the beginning of the wet season. Give reasons for your decision.
QUESTION 31 (6 marks) Table 1 below shows the carcass results for three animals shown at the Royal National Association Led Steer competition. Table 2 below shows the pricing schedule at the abattoir that the animals were sent to after the competition (grid price $5.90/ kg). Table 1 Hot score carcass weight (HSCW) (kg) ee P8 fat (mm) Eye muscle area (cm’) Table 2 Ac 280.1—300 300.1—320 320.1400 o a a) Determine which animal returned the highest income. Show your working. Animal returning the highest income = Animal b) For each animal discuss the possible characteristics if any that prevented them from achieving the agreed grid price. [3 marks] [3 marks]
QUESTION 1 (3 marks) Nutritional constituents of three commercially prepared poultry rations are shown in the table below. Available phosphorus (%) 0.5 0.5 Contrast the information in the table to justify which ration should be used for 16-week-old egg-laying chickens.
QUESTION 2 (3 marks) Table | lists the nutritional requirements for cattle based on their stage of production. Table 1 Category Life stage Dry matter Non-digestible (life stage) intake fibre (%) Bull calf >12 months old 2.8 Table 2 shows some nutritional analysis of a generic cattle pellet. Table 2 Justify which life-stage categories could be fed the generic pellet.
QUESTION 5 (3 marks) a) Identify a soil management technique. [1 mark] b) Describe one advantage and one disadvantage of this technique in terms of sustainable production. [2 marks]
QUESTION 7 (4 marks) The table below contains live weight and carcass estimated breeding values (EBV) data for a selection of sires from a British breed catalogue. ef pw | a) Use the data to decide which bull a buyer should purchase if they wish to sell steers to the local domestic market and have been advised to e increase size and growth to 14 months e reduce fatness e maintain or improve muscularity e improve marbling. [1 mark] Bull purchased = b) Justify your decision. [3 marks]
QUESTION 8 (3 marks) The figure below shows the amount of surplus barley that is exported after being used in domestic feed and malting. 9000 8000 } 7000 6000 Export surplus 5000 barley (‘000 tonnes) 4900 3000 2000 ¥ 1000 0 2007 2009 2011 2013 2015 2017 2019 Year a) Determine to the nearest 10 000 tonnes/year the average annual increase in the mass of barley exported from 2007 to 2013. [1 mark] Average annual increase in barley = tonnes/year b) Use the data to predict approximately how much barley will be exported in 2018. State your answer to the nearest 100 000 tonnes. Show your working. [2 marks] Expected barley exported in 2018 = tonnes
QUESTION 9 (3 marks) Identify three factors that affect animal growth and development.
QUESTION 10 (2 marks) Select a local or regional pest and describe an impact that the pest has on the associated production animal. Selected pest: Impact:
QUESTION 11 (2 marks) Select an animal welfare issue associated with production practices and explain why it is classified as a welfare issue. Animal welfare issue:
QUESTION 12 Refer to Stimulus | in the stimulus book. Question 12 has four parts: a) b) c) and d). You must respond to all four parts. Assess the opportunity that the family has for sustainable practices in their operation. a) Explain three positive practices in their current management. b) Identify two management actions that the manager could take that would improve sustainability. Address water/soil management and weed management. Give reasons to support each action. c) Identify three future risks that the family should manage for their operation to remain sustainable. d) For one of the identified risks explain why it would be considered a risk to the future sustainability of the family’s operation. [9 marks] [6 marks] [3 marks] [2 marks]
QUESTION 8 (3 marks) The graph shows supply and demand for apricots at the start of the apricot season in southern Queensland. 120 Demand (cases) — om) fo) ioe) on) --— - -- -— = - - -- = = -- --— =- = - = = - -=— - - - =- = =- --— - -- Supply (cases) aN on) Number of cases (’000) o>) =) N a) 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 $/case Describe what effect a severe hailstorm in the major growing area for apricots would have on demand for the rest of this season. Show your reasoning.
QUESTION 5 (4 marks) Identify four differences between protein metabolism in ruminant and monogastric animals.
QUESTION 27 (4 marks) A trial was conducted to determine the efficacy of treatments for the Varroa mite in honey bees. Four treatments were used: the control fungus Metarhizium anisopliae and pesticides (Product A and Product B). The table shows the mean values for each treatment. Treatment WPA AIUom CMCC” Mean values for mites Honey of adult bees (“%) remaining in the hive | extracted (kg) — 1552068 | 1934038 5679 859 1.28 + 0.45 0.32 +.0.03 21.14 + 4.79 pO 0.87 40.01 0.02 + 0.01 0.71 +0.10 0.92 + 0.05 0.03 + 0.01 0.81 + 0.15 Use the table to draw a conclusion about the most effective treatment for the control of the Varroa mite in honey bees. Provide three pieces of evidence from the data to support your conclusion.
QUESTION 1 The table below gives pairs of descriptions for intensive and extensive industries. low levels of input/ha high levels of production/ha Il low initial capital costs per unit area IV smaller areas of production larger areas of production Which of the following describes the characteristics for intensive and extensive industries? (A) I Il Hl (B) LILIV (C) LILIV (D) I Ill IV
QUESTION 26 (6 marks) The graph shows the relationship between average annual income and meat consumption in some Asian countries. _ 140 O iv Hong Kong Key 5 150 Population s Macau C) > 1 billion a O S 100 illi = . 50 million— 5 O Mongolia 1 billion a 80 O 0-50 million S (C )South Korea 3 (Vietnam Ch = 60 Myanmar me z ©) y Japan ° 2 40 (Philippines (Turkey ——— 2 Thailand 2 20 Cambodi S @vampodia (Indonesia OAfghanistan < India 1000 10 000 100 000 Income ($) Discuss four opportunities for sustainable social growth in Australian plant and animal protein industries using evidence from the graph. Draw a justified conclusion about the social sustainability of these industries referring to standard of living.
QUESTION 9 The table shows nutrient composition of the feeds available for dairy cattle on a farm. Feed Crude protein | Metabolisable energy | Dry matter See DM) (MJ/kg DM) = eC If a ration consisting of 3 kg silage 5 kg barley and 2 kg N-fertilised turnip leaf was supplied to each animal what would be the total available crude protein and metabolisable energy? Crude protein | Metabolisable energy (g) (MJ) 120
QUESTION 4 (4 marks) The table contains agronomic information for three different varieties of an agricultural crop. spot (disease) (disease) Rust (disease) Yellow leaf Crown rot Acid soils Key Disease resistance Acid soil tolerance S Susceptible T Tolerant MS Moderately susceptible — I Intolerant R Resistant MR Moderately resistant Draw a conclusion about which crop variety should be used in high rainfall areas. Justify your conclusion with three pieces of evidence.
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